OBG flashcards for NEET PG
74 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 74 cards pick out single facts in OBG that the exam keeps returning to: Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, Postpartum haemorrhage, Antenatal care, Obstetric drugs, Obstetric immunology, Endocrinology of pregnancy and more. Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in OBG: Missing a contraindication such as carboprost in asthma. Read the OBG study guide.
1 · Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
Drug of choice for eclampsia and antidote for its toxicity?
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Magnesium sulphate; calcium gluconate. Watch reflexes, respiration, urine output.
Memory hook: Lose the knee jerk, stop the drip.
2 · Postpartum haemorrhage
The four Ts of PPH?
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Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin. Atony is the commonest.
Memory hook: Tone first.
3 · Antenatal care
Naegele's rule?
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EDD = first day of LMP + 7 days − 3 months (or + 9 months). Assumes a 28-day cycle.
Memory hook: Add 7, add 9.
4 · Obstetric drugs
Which uterotonic should be avoided in asthma, and which in hypertension?
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Carboprost in asthma; methylergometrine in hypertension and pre-eclampsia.
Memory hook: Ergot raises BP.
5 · Obstetric immunology
When is anti-D given to an Rh-negative mother?
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Within 72 hours of delivery of an Rh-positive baby, and after sensitising events and at about 28 weeks per protocol.
Memory hook: Sooner is better.
6 · Endocrinology of pregnancy
Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum in early pregnancy?
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Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG).
Memory hook: Peaks around 10 weeks.
7 · Hypertensive disorders
Which drugs are commonly used for acute severe hypertension in pregnancy, and which are avoided?
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Labetalol, oral nifedipine or hydralazine are used; ACE inhibitors and ARBs are avoided because they harm the fetus.
Memory hook: No -prils or -sartans in pregnancy.
8 · Medical disorders in pregnancy
Which anticoagulant is preferred in pregnancy?
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Low molecular weight heparin; warfarin is teratogenic.
Memory hook: Heparin does not cross the placenta.
9 · Intrapartum care
What is the normal fetal heart rate range?
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110 to 160 beats per minute.
Memory hook: Below 110 bradycardia, above 160 tachycardia.
10 · Hypertensive disorders
How is pre-eclampsia defined?
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New hypertension (140/90 or more) after 20 weeks with proteinuria or evidence of end-organ dysfunction.
Memory hook: Severe features need magnesium sulphate.
11 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
Which sign is bluish discolouration of the vagina in early pregnancy?
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Jacquemier's (Chadwick's) sign.
Memory hook: Blue from increased vascularity.
12 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
What is Hegar's sign?
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Softening of the lower uterine segment (isthmus) at about 6 to 10 weeks, felt on bimanual examination.
Memory hook: Hegar = the soft isthmus.
13 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
At what gestation does the fundus reach the umbilicus?
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About 24 weeks.
Memory hook: Symphysis at 12, umbilicus at 24, xiphisternum at 36.
14 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
What daily folic acid dose is advised to prevent a first neural tube defect?
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400 micrograms daily, started before conception and continued to 12 weeks.
Memory hook: Higher dose (4 mg) if a previous NTD.
15 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
What is the normal range of amniotic fluid index?
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About 5 to 25 cm.
Memory hook: Below 5 oligohydramnios, above 25 polyhydramnios.
16 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
How much does plasma volume rise in normal pregnancy?
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About 40 to 50 percent, more than red cell mass, giving physiological haemodilution.
Memory hook: Physiological anaemia of pregnancy.
17 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
Which is the screening test for gestational diabetes in India's usual practice?
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A 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (non-fasting, 2-hour value 140 mg/dL or more is diagnostic).
Memory hook: DIPSI single-step approach.
18 · Normal pregnancy and antenatal care
Which scan measurement is most accurate for dating in the first trimester?
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Crown-rump length.
Memory hook: CRL best at 7 to 13 weeks.
19 · Complications of pregnancy
Classic triad of ectopic pregnancy?
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Amenorrhoea, pain in the lower abdomen and vaginal bleeding.
Memory hook: Commonest site: ampulla of the fallopian tube.
20 · Complications of pregnancy
Methotrexate is suitable for ectopic pregnancy only in which setting?
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Haemodynamically stable, unruptured, small mass (size below the protocol limit), no fetal cardiac activity, reliable follow-up.
Memory hook: Unstable or ruptured means surgery.
21 · Complications of pregnancy
What is the commonest cause of first-trimester abortion?
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Chromosomal abnormality of the embryo.
Memory hook: Most are aneuploidy, commonly trisomy.
22 · Complications of pregnancy
Which ultrasound finding is typical of a complete hydatidiform mole?
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Snowstorm (vesicular) pattern with no fetal parts.
Memory hook: Triploidy is typical of partial mole.
23 · Complications of pregnancy
What is the karyotype of a complete mole?
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46,XX, usually all paternal in origin.
Memory hook: Empty egg fertilised by sperm.
24 · Complications of pregnancy
Classic presentation of placenta praevia?
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Painless, recurrent bleeding in the third trimester with a soft relaxed uterus.
Memory hook: Abruption is painful.
25 · Complications of pregnancy
Classic presentation of placental abruption?
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Painful vaginal bleeding with a tender, woody-hard uterus and fetal distress.
Memory hook: Hypertension is the commonest association.
26 · Complications of pregnancy
Which test is avoided in suspected placenta praevia and why?
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Digital vaginal examination, because it can provoke torrential bleeding.
Memory hook: Use ultrasound instead.
27 · Complications of pregnancy
Which hyperemesis-related complication is caused by thiamine deficiency?
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Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Memory hook: Give thiamine before glucose.
28 · Labour and delivery
What are the stages of labour?
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First: onset to full dilatation; second: full dilatation to delivery of the baby; third: delivery of the placenta.
Memory hook: Fourth stage is the first hour after.
29 · Labour and delivery
Which cardinal movement follows engagement in a vertex presentation?
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Descent, then flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution, external rotation.
Memory hook: Engagement, Descent, Flexion, IR, Extension, Restitution, ER.
30 · Labour and delivery
What are the three Ps of labour?
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Power (contractions), Passage (pelvis and soft tissue) and Passenger (fetus).
Memory hook: Problem in any one causes dystocia.
31 · Labour and delivery
Which pelvis type is best for normal vaginal delivery?
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Gynaecoid.
Memory hook: Android suits male-type obstruction.
32 · Labour and delivery
Which partograph line marks the point to consider intervention if the cervix crosses it?
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The action line, drawn 4 hours to the right of the alert line.
Memory hook: Alert line is 1 cm per hour from 4 cm.
33 · Labour and delivery
Which manoeuvre is first-line for shoulder dystocia?
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McRoberts manoeuvre with suprapubic pressure.
Memory hook: Flex hips onto the abdomen.
34 · Labour and delivery
Which late deceleration pattern suggests uteroplacental insufficiency?
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Late decelerations: fall begins after the peak of the contraction.
Memory hook: Early = head compression; variable = cord.
35 · Labour and delivery
Which head position is most common for a normal vertex presentation?
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Left occipito-anterior.
Memory hook: LOA is commonest.
36 · Labour and delivery
Which breech type is commonest at term?
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Frank breech (extended legs).
Memory hook: Hips flexed, knees extended.
37 · Labour and delivery
What is the Bishop score used for?
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Assessing cervical favourability before induction of labour; 8 or more predicts success.
Memory hook: Dilatation, effacement, station, consistency, position.
38 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
Definition of primary PPH?
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Blood loss of 500 mL or more after vaginal delivery (1000 mL after caesarean) within 24 hours.
Memory hook: Secondary PPH is after 24 hours to 12 weeks.
39 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
First-line uterotonic for active management of third stage?
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Oxytocin 10 units IM.
Memory hook: Used for prevention as well as treatment.
40 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
Which drug is added early in PPH to reduce bleeding by antifibrinolysis?
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Tranexamic acid 1 g IV within 3 hours of delivery.
Memory hook: Repeat once if bleeding continues.
41 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
Which compression suture is used for atonic PPH?
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B-Lynch brace suture.
Memory hook: Wraps the uterus like a brace.
42 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
How is acute uterine inversion managed first?
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Immediate manual replacement (Johnson manoeuvre); tocolytic or anaesthesia if needed.
Memory hook: Do not give oxytocin until replaced.
43 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
Which is the classic triad of amniotic fluid embolism?
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Sudden hypoxia, hypotension and coagulopathy during labour or just after delivery.
Memory hook: Treatment is supportive.
44 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
Which sign suggests uterine rupture in a woman with a previous caesarean scar?
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Sudden pain, fetal heart rate abnormality, loss of station and vaginal bleeding.
Memory hook: Abnormal CTG is the earliest sign.
45 · Postpartum haemorrhage and emergencies
Sheehan syndrome follows what?
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Pituitary necrosis from severe postpartum haemorrhage: failure of lactation, amenorrhoea and hypopituitarism.
Memory hook: First sign: no lactation.
46 · Hypertensive disorders
Define HELLP syndrome.
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Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets.
Memory hook: A severe pre-eclampsia variant.
47 · Hypertensive disorders
What is the loading dose in the Pritchard regimen?
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4 g IV slowly plus 10 g IM (5 g in each buttock).
Memory hook: Then 5 g IM every 4 hours.
48 · Hypertensive disorders
How is gestational hypertension defined?
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New hypertension after 20 weeks without proteinuria or organ dysfunction, resolving by 12 weeks postpartum.
Memory hook: If it persists, chronic hypertension.
49 · Hypertensive disorders
Which drug reduces risk of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women?
Show the answer
Low-dose aspirin (75 to 150 mg) started from 12 to 16 weeks.
Memory hook: Start before 16 weeks.
50 · Hypertensive disorders
What is the definitive treatment of pre-eclampsia?
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Delivery of the placenta and fetus.
Memory hook: Timing depends on severity and gestation.
51 · Gynaecological endocrinology
Which hormone surge triggers ovulation?
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The LH surge, about 24 to 36 hours before ovulation.
Memory hook: Oestrogen positive feedback.
52 · Gynaecological endocrinology
Rotterdam criteria for PCOS need two of which three features?
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Oligo/anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
Memory hook: Exclude other causes.
53 · Gynaecological endocrinology
Which drug is first-line for ovulation induction in PCOS?
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Letrozole.
Memory hook: Clomiphene is the older option.
54 · Gynaecological endocrinology
What is primary amenorrhoea by age criteria?
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No menarche by 15 years with secondary sexual characters, or by 13 years without them.
Memory hook: Check for Turner and Mullerian agenesis.
55 · Gynaecological endocrinology
Karyotype and key features of Turner syndrome?
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45,XO: short stature, streak ovaries, primary amenorrhoea, webbed neck.
Memory hook: High FSH, low oestrogen.
56 · Gynaecological endocrinology
Which syndrome is 46,XY with female phenotype and absent uterus?
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Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.
Memory hook: Testes present, blind vagina, no pubic hair.
57 · Gynaecological endocrinology
What causes Asherman syndrome and how is it diagnosed?
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Intrauterine adhesions after curettage; diagnosed by hysteroscopy.
Memory hook: Secondary amenorrhoea after D and C.
58 · Gynaecological endocrinology
Which drug is first-line for hyperprolactinaemia?
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Cabergoline (dopamine agonist).
Memory hook: Bromocriptine is an alternative.
59 · Infertility and contraception
Define infertility.
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Failure to conceive after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse.
Memory hook: Earlier evaluation if over 35 years.
60 · Infertility and contraception
Which investigation tests tubal patency and also shows uterine cavity shape?
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Hysterosalpingography (HSG), done in the follicular phase.
Memory hook: Not during bleeding or infection.
61 · Infertility and contraception
What is the Pearl Index?
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Number of contraceptive failures per 100 woman-years of use.
Memory hook: Lower is better.
62 · Infertility and contraception
Which is the most effective emergency contraceptive overall?
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Copper IUCD (within 5 days); ulipristal is the most effective oral option.
Memory hook: Levonorgestrel works best within 72 hours.
63 · Infertility and contraception
Duration of action of a copper T 380A?
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10 years.
Memory hook: CuT 375 lasts 5 years.
64 · Infertility and contraception
Which combined pill risk makes it contraindicated in smokers over 35?
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Increased risk of venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular events.
Memory hook: Also migraine with aura.
65 · Infertility and contraception
Which long-acting injectable contraceptive is given every 3 months?
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DMPA (depot medroxyprogesterone acetate).
Memory hook: May reduce bone density.
66 · Infertility and contraception
Normal semen volume and sperm concentration per WHO reference limits?
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At least 1.4 mL volume and 16 million per mL concentration (WHO 2021).
Memory hook: Lower reference limits, not averages.
67 · Gynaecological oncology
Which HPV types cause most cervical cancers?
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Types 16 and 18.
Memory hook: 6 and 11 cause genital warts.
68 · Gynaecological oncology
Most common histological type of cervical cancer?
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Squamous cell carcinoma.
Memory hook: Adenocarcinoma is next.
69 · Gynaecological oncology
Where does cervical cancer arise?
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At the squamocolumnar (transformation zone) junction.
Memory hook: The target of Pap smear sampling.
70 · Gynaecological oncology
Which tumour marker is raised in epithelial ovarian cancer?
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CA-125.
Memory hook: Also raised in endometriosis.
71 · Gynaecological oncology
Which ovarian germ cell tumour marker is AFP-secreting?
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Endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumour.
Memory hook: Schiller-Duval bodies.
72 · Gynaecological oncology
Commonest gynaecological cancer in developed countries?
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Endometrial carcinoma, typically presenting with postmenopausal bleeding.
Memory hook: Oestrogen excess is a risk.
73 · Gynaecological oncology
Which gene mutations raise the risk of ovarian and breast cancer?
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BRCA1 and BRCA2.
Memory hook: Consider risk-reducing surgery.
74 · Gynaecological oncology
Which is the treatment of choice for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, low risk?
Show the answer
Single-agent chemotherapy, methotrexate or actinomycin D, monitored with hCG.
Memory hook: Highly chemosensitive.
Common questions
How many OBG flashcards are there?
74 cards across 16 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the OBG deck?
Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, Postpartum haemorrhage, Antenatal care, Obstetric drugs, Obstetric immunology, Endocrinology of pregnancy, Hypertensive disorders, Medical disorders in pregnancy, Intrapartum care, Normal pregnancy and antenatal care, Complications of pregnancy, Labour and delivery, and more.
Is the OBG deck free?
OBG opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
74 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many OBG cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the OBG cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.