Pathology flashcards for NEET PG
76 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 76 cards pick out single facts in Pathology that the exam keeps returning to: Haematopathology, Cell injury, Haemodynamics, Endocrine pathology, Respiratory pathology, Neoplasia and more. Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in Pathology: Mixing up granulomatous diseases by their necrosis pattern. Read the Pathology study guide.
1 · Haematopathology
Translocation and fusion gene of CML?
Show the answer
t(9;22), BCR-ABL1 (Philadelphia chromosome). Imatinib targets it.
Memory hook: 9 and 22: BCR-ABL.
2 · Haematopathology
Immunophenotype of Reed–Sternberg cells?
Show the answer
CD15 and CD30 positive: classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
Memory hook: Owl-eye cells.
3 · Cell injury
Which necrosis is typical of TB, and what does it look like?
Show the answer
Caseous necrosis: structureless, cheese-like, with granulomas.
Memory hook: Coagulative = infarcts; liquefactive = brain, abscess.
4 · Haemodynamics
Components of Virchow's triad?
Show the answer
Endothelial injury, stasis or turbulence, hypercoagulability.
Memory hook: Damage, flow, blood.
5 · Endocrine pathology
Cell of origin and marker of medullary thyroid carcinoma?
Show the answer
Parafollicular C cells; calcitonin; amyloid in the stroma.
Memory hook: Think MEN 2.
6 · Respiratory pathology
Which is the commonest lung cancer in non-smokers?
Show the answer
Adenocarcinoma.
Memory hook: Peripheral, and the commonest overall now.
7 · Neoplasia
Which tumours show psammoma bodies?
Show the answer
Papillary thyroid carcinoma, serous ovarian carcinoma, meningioma and mesothelioma.
Memory hook: PSaMMoma: Papillary, Serous, Meningioma, Mesothelioma.
8 · Neoplasia
Which oncogene is amplified in neuroblastoma, and what does amplification mean for prognosis?
Show the answer
MYCN (N-myc) amplification; it marks aggressive disease and a poorer prognosis.
Memory hook: N for neuroblastoma, N for N-myc.
9 · Cell injury
What are the microscopic features of apoptosis?
Show the answer
Cell shrinkage, eosinophilic cytoplasm, nuclear condensation and fragmentation, with no inflammation.
Memory hook: Neat, silent suicide.
10 · Amyloidosis
Which protein forms amyloid in dialysis-related amyloidosis?
Show the answer
Beta-2 microglobulin.
Memory hook: Carpal tunnel in long-term dialysis.
11 · Cell injury and adaptation
What is the earliest reversible change of cell injury seen on light microscopy?
Show the answer
Cellular swelling (hydropic change), due to failure of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Memory hook: Pump fails, water enters.
12 · Cell injury and adaptation
Which feature marks irreversible cell injury?
Show the answer
Mitochondrial amorphous densities and membrane damage, followed by nuclear changes: pyknosis, karyorrhexis, karyolysis.
Memory hook: Shrink, break, dissolve.
13 · Cell injury and adaptation
Which necrosis is seen in acute pancreatitis?
Show the answer
Enzymatic fat necrosis, with chalky saponification by calcium soaps.
Memory hook: Lipase makes soap.
14 · Cell injury and adaptation
Which caspases are initiators and which are executioners in apoptosis?
Show the answer
Initiators: caspase 8 and 9. Executioners: caspase 3 and 6.
Memory hook: 8 and 9 start, 3 finishes.
15 · Cell injury and adaptation
Which pathway of apoptosis involves cytochrome c release and BAX/BAK?
Show the answer
The intrinsic (mitochondrial) pathway, activating caspase 9; BCL-2 inhibits it.
Memory hook: BCL-2 guards the mitochondria.
16 · Cell injury and adaptation
Which pigment is the 'wear and tear' pigment of ageing?
Show the answer
Lipofuscin, from lipid peroxidation of membranes; seen in the heart and liver.
Memory hook: Brown atrophy.
17 · Cell injury and adaptation
Which type of calcification occurs in normal serum calcium?
Show the answer
Dystrophic calcification in dead or damaged tissue.
Memory hook: Dystrophic: dead tissue, normal calcium.
18 · Cell injury and adaptation
Replacement of one adult epithelium by another, as in Barrett oesophagus, is called what?
Show the answer
Metaplasia: squamous to columnar here, a reversible adaptive change that predisposes to adenocarcinoma.
Memory hook: Switch of cell type.
19 · Inflammation and repair
Which cell is the first to arrive at a site of acute inflammation?
Show the answer
The neutrophil, within the first 6 to 24 hours; monocytes follow at 24 to 48 hours.
Memory hook: Neutrophils first.
20 · Inflammation and repair
Which integrin deficiency causes leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1?
Show the answer
Defective CD18 (beta-2 integrin), with delayed umbilical cord separation and no pus.
Memory hook: No firm adhesion, no pus.
21 · Inflammation and repair
Which genetic defect causes Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Show the answer
A LYST gene mutation causing defective phagolysosome fusion; giant granules in leukocytes and partial albinism.
Memory hook: Giant granules, albinism.
22 · Inflammation and repair
What is the defect in chronic granulomatous disease?
Show the answer
Deficient NADPH oxidase, so no oxidative burst; catalase-positive organisms cause recurrent infection. Diagnosed by the nitroblue tetrazolium or DHR test.
Memory hook: No respiratory burst.
23 · Inflammation and repair
Which cytokines mediate fever in inflammation?
Show the answer
IL-1, IL-6 and TNF, acting through prostaglandin E2 in the hypothalamus.
Memory hook: Pyrogens raise PGE2.
24 · Inflammation and repair
Which cell is the hallmark of chronic inflammation?
Show the answer
The macrophage, with lymphocytes and plasma cells.
Memory hook: Mononuclear infiltrate.
25 · Inflammation and repair
Which cells make up a granuloma and which cytokine sustains it?
Show the answer
Epithelioid macrophages and giant cells with lymphocytes; IFN-gamma from Th1 cells activates the macrophages.
Memory hook: IFN-gamma builds granulomas.
26 · Inflammation and repair
Which type of collagen is laid first in wound healing and which replaces it?
Show the answer
Type III collagen first, replaced by type I.
Memory hook: III then I.
27 · Inflammation and repair
Which cell is responsible for wound contraction?
Show the answer
The myofibroblast.
Memory hook: Muscle-like fibroblast.
28 · Inflammation and repair
How does a keloid differ from a hypertrophic scar?
Show the answer
A keloid grows beyond the original wound margin and recurs after excision; a hypertrophic scar stays within it.
Memory hook: Keloid invades beyond.
29 · Haemodynamics
What is the difference between a transudate and an exudate by protein content?
Show the answer
Transudate: low protein, specific gravity below 1.012. Exudate: high protein, above 1.020.
Memory hook: Exudate is rich.
30 · Haemodynamics
What is the most common source of a pulmonary thromboembolus?
Show the answer
Deep veins of the lower limb, usually the femoral, popliteal and iliac veins.
Memory hook: Legs to lungs.
31 · Haemodynamics
Which type of thrombus shows the lines of Zahn?
Show the answer
A thrombus formed in flowing blood, with alternating pale platelet-fibrin and dark red cell layers.
Memory hook: Lines mean it formed alive.
32 · Haemodynamics
Which infarct is typically red (haemorrhagic) rather than pale?
Show the answer
Infarcts in loose, dual-supply or venous-occlusion organs such as the lung, bowel and testis (torsion).
Memory hook: Loose tissue bleeds in.
33 · Haemodynamics
What are the three stages of shock?
Show the answer
Non-progressive (compensated), progressive, and irreversible.
Memory hook: Compensate, decompensate, die.
34 · Neoplasia
Which feature best distinguishes malignant from benign tumours?
Show the answer
Invasion and metastasis.
Memory hook: Spread is the sign.
35 · Neoplasia
What is the mutation pattern of the RB gene according to Knudson's two-hit hypothesis?
Show the answer
Both alleles must be lost; in familial retinoblastoma one hit is inherited, so a single somatic hit is enough.
Memory hook: Two hits, one inherited.
36 · Neoplasia
Which tumour suppressor is called the guardian of the genome?
Show the answer
TP53, which causes cell cycle arrest or apoptosis after DNA damage; its germline loss causes Li-Fraumeni syndrome.
Memory hook: p53 guards.
37 · Neoplasia
Which translocation and oncogene is typical of Burkitt lymphoma?
Show the answer
t(8;14) involving MYC and the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene.
Memory hook: 8 and 14: MYC.
38 · Neoplasia
Which translocation is typical of follicular lymphoma?
Show the answer
t(14;18) with BCL2 overexpression, blocking apoptosis.
Memory hook: 14 and 18: BCL2.
39 · Neoplasia
Which translocation is seen in mantle cell lymphoma?
Show the answer
t(11;14) causing cyclin D1 overexpression.
Memory hook: 11;14, cyclin D1.
40 · Neoplasia
Which translocation is typical of acute promyelocytic leukaemia and what treats it?
Show the answer
t(15;17) PML-RARA; all-trans retinoic acid induces differentiation.
Memory hook: 15;17, retinoic acid.
41 · Neoplasia
Which tumour marker is raised in hepatocellular carcinoma and yolk sac tumour?
Show the answer
Alpha-fetoprotein.
Memory hook: AFP: liver and yolk sac.
42 · Neoplasia
Which tumour marker is raised in choriocarcinoma and hydatidiform mole?
Show the answer
Beta-hCG.
Memory hook: hCG for trophoblast.
43 · Neoplasia
Which oncogene is activated in medullary thyroid carcinoma in MEN 2?
Show the answer
RET proto-oncogene, by a germline gain-of-function mutation.
Memory hook: RET in MEN 2.
44 · Neoplasia
Which viruses are linked to nasopharyngeal carcinoma, cervical cancer and hepatocellular carcinoma?
Show the answer
EBV, HPV (types 16 and 18) and HBV or HCV respectively.
Memory hook: Match virus to site.
45 · Immunopathology
Which hypersensitivity type underlies Goodpasture syndrome and myasthenia gravis?
Show the answer
Type II, antibody-mediated against cell or tissue antigens.
Memory hook: Antibody on the surface.
46 · Immunopathology
Which hypersensitivity type underlies serum sickness and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
Show the answer
Type III, immune complex deposition.
Memory hook: Complexes lodge in vessels.
47 · Immunopathology
Which HLA allele is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Show the answer
HLA-B27.
Memory hook: B27 and the spine.
48 · Immunopathology
Which HLA types are associated with coeliac disease?
Show the answer
HLA-DQ2 and DQ8.
Memory hook: DQ for gluten.
49 · Immunopathology
Which autoantibody is most specific for SLE?
Show the answer
Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith (anti-Sm); ANA is the most sensitive screen.
Memory hook: ANA sensitive, Sm specific.
50 · Immunopathology
Which autoantibody is specific for limited scleroderma (CREST)?
Show the answer
Anti-centromere antibody; diffuse scleroderma has anti-Scl-70 (topoisomerase I).
Memory hook: Centromere for CREST.
51 · Immunopathology
What is the defect in Bruton agammaglobulinaemia?
Show the answer
BTK mutation on the X chromosome, so B cells fail to mature; recurrent bacterial infection after 6 months and absent immunoglobulins.
Memory hook: X-linked, no B cells.
52 · Immunopathology
Which immunodeficiency features hypocalcaemia, cardiac defects and absent thymus?
Show the answer
DiGeorge syndrome, from 22q11 deletion and failed development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches.
Memory hook: 22q11, T-cell loss.
53 · Immunopathology
Which enzyme is deficient in the commonest form of autosomal recessive SCID?
Show the answer
Adenosine deaminase (ADA), causing toxic metabolites in lymphocytes.
Memory hook: ADA kills lymphocytes.
54 · Immunopathology
Which stain and which feature identify amyloid?
Show the answer
Congo red, showing apple-green birefringence under polarised light; it has a beta-pleated sheet structure.
Memory hook: Apple-green.
55 · Immunopathology
Which protein forms amyloid in primary (AL) amyloidosis?
Show the answer
Immunoglobulin light chains, associated with plasma cell disorders.
Memory hook: AL: light chains.
56 · Haematology
Which red cell indices and finding characterise iron deficiency anaemia?
Show the answer
Low MCV, low ferritin, high TIBC, with microcytic hypochromic cells and pencil cells.
Memory hook: Ferritin low, TIBC high.
57 · Haematology
What is the characteristic peripheral smear in megaloblastic anaemia?
Show the answer
Macro-ovalocytes with hypersegmented neutrophils (more than five lobes).
Memory hook: Big cells, many lobes.
58 · Haematology
Which antibodies cause pernicious anaemia?
Show the answer
Anti-intrinsic factor and anti-parietal cell antibodies.
Memory hook: No intrinsic factor, no B12.
59 · Haematology
Which inheritance and defect cause hereditary spherocytosis?
Show the answer
Autosomal dominant defect of ankyrin, spectrin or band 3; diagnosed by osmotic fragility or EMA binding test.
Memory hook: Spheres, fragile.
60 · Haematology
What is the characteristic Hb finding in beta-thalassaemia major?
Show the answer
Markedly raised HbF with absent or low HbA; target cells and a hair-on-end skull.
Memory hook: HbF persists.
61 · Haematology
Which mutation causes sickle cell disease?
Show the answer
Glutamic acid to valine at position 6 of the beta globin chain (HbS).
Memory hook: Glu6Val.
62 · Haematology
Which enzyme deficiency causes haemolysis after sulfa drugs or fava beans, and what is seen on smear?
Show the answer
G6PD deficiency; Heinz bodies and bite cells.
Memory hook: Heinz and bite.
63 · Haematology
Which flow cytometry markers diagnose paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?
Show the answer
Absent CD55 and CD59 (GPI-anchored proteins), from PIGA mutation.
Memory hook: Missing CD55, CD59.
64 · Haematology
Which coagulation test is prolonged in haemophilia A?
Show the answer
aPTT, with normal PT and normal bleeding time; factor VIII is deficient.
Memory hook: Intrinsic pathway, aPTT.
65 · Haematology
Which tests are abnormal in von Willebrand disease?
Show the answer
Prolonged bleeding time and defective ristocetin-induced aggregation; aPTT is prolonged in many cases from low factor VIII.
Memory hook: Ristocetin fails.
66 · Haematology
Which two laboratory findings define DIC?
Show the answer
Raised D-dimer or FDP with low fibrinogen and platelets, with prolonged PT and aPTT.
Memory hook: Consumed factors.
67 · Haematology
What is the genetic hallmark of polycythaemia vera?
Show the answer
JAK2 V617F mutation, with raised red cell mass and low erythropoietin.
Memory hook: JAK2, low EPO.
68 · Systemic pathology: cardiovascular
Which cell is the hallmark of rheumatic carditis?
Show the answer
The Anitschkow cell within Aschoff bodies.
Memory hook: Caterpillar nucleus.
69 · Systemic pathology: respiratory
Which type of emphysema is linked to smoking and which to alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Show the answer
Centriacinar for smoking, mainly upper lobes; panacinar for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, mainly lower lobes.
Memory hook: Centri smoke, pan lower.
70 · Systemic pathology: respiratory
Which pneumoconiosis carries the highest tuberculosis risk?
Show the answer
Silicosis.
Memory hook: Silica and TB.
71 · Systemic pathology: gastrointestinal
Which organism and lesion are linked to gastric MALT lymphoma?
Show the answer
Helicobacter pylori; eradication can regress early disease.
Memory hook: Treat the bug.
72 · Systemic pathology: gastrointestinal
Which gene is mutated in familial adenomatous polyposis?
Show the answer
APC gene on chromosome 5q; nearly all untreated patients develop colorectal cancer.
Memory hook: APC on 5q.
73 · Systemic pathology: renal
Which glomerular disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, and what is seen on EM?
Show the answer
Minimal change disease, with effacement of podocyte foot processes and a normal light microscopy.
Memory hook: Normal on LM, steroid responsive.
74 · Systemic pathology: renal
What is the immunofluorescence pattern of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
Show the answer
Granular lumpy-bumpy IgG and C3, with subepithelial humps on electron microscopy.
Memory hook: Humps.
75 · Systemic pathology: central nervous system
Which brain tumour shows pseudopalisading necrosis?
Show the answer
Glioblastoma multiforme.
Memory hook: Palisades around necrosis.
76 · Systemic pathology: bone and soft tissue
Which translocation characterises Ewing sarcoma?
Show the answer
t(11;22) EWS-FLI1; small round blue cells that are PAS positive and CD99 positive.
Memory hook: 11;22, onion skin.
Common questions
How many Pathology flashcards are there?
76 cards across 17 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the Pathology deck?
Haematopathology, Cell injury, Haemodynamics, Endocrine pathology, Respiratory pathology, Neoplasia, Amyloidosis, Cell injury and adaptation, Inflammation and repair, Immunopathology, Haematology, Systemic pathology: cardiovascular, and more.
Is the Pathology deck free?
Pathology opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
76 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many Pathology cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the Pathology cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.