Pediatrics flashcards for NEET PG
74 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 74 cards pick out single facts in Pediatrics that the exam keeps returning to: Immunisation, Congenital heart disease, Development, Neonatology, Diarrhoeal diseases, Growth and more. Memorise milestones and the vaccine schedule as tables and revise them often. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in Pediatrics: Using an outdated vaccine schedule. Read the Pediatrics study guide.
1 · Immunisation
Which vaccines are given at birth under India's UIP?
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BCG, zero-dose oral polio and hepatitis B birth dose. Confirm against the current schedule.
Memory hook: Three at birth.
2 · Congenital heart disease
Components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
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Pulmonary stenosis, VSD, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy.
Memory hook: Boot-shaped heart.
3 · Development
When does a social smile, head holding, sitting and walking appear?
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Social smile 2 months; head holding 3 months; sitting about 6 months; walking about 12 months.
Memory hook: 2, 3, 6, 12.
4 · Neonatology
What does jaundice in the first 24 hours imply?
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Always pathological. Think haemolysis: Rh or ABO incompatibility, G6PD deficiency.
Memory hook: Physiological starts after 24 h.
5 · Diarrhoeal diseases
WHO low-osmolarity ORS composition?
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Sodium 75, glucose 75 mmol/L; osmolarity 245 mOsm/L; add zinc.
Memory hook: 75 and 75.
6 · Growth
When does a baby's birth weight double and triple?
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Doubles at about 5 months and triples at 1 year.
Memory hook: 2, 3, 4: double 5 mo, triple 1 yr, quadruple 2 yr.
7 · Neonatology
Why is vitamin K given to newborns?
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To prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
Memory hook: Newborn gut has no vitamin K-producing flora yet.
8 · Infectious diseases
Koplik spots are seen in which disease?
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Measles.
Memory hook: Blue-white spots on the buccal mucosa before the rash.
9 · Neonatology
What is the usual limit for passing meconium, and what causes delay beyond it?
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Most term babies pass meconium within 48 hours. Delay suggests Hirschsprung disease, meconium ileus (cystic fibrosis) or an anorectal malformation.
Memory hook: No meconium by 48 hours needs a cause.
10 · Neonatal surgery
What are the typical age and sex of a child with pyloric stenosis?
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A first-born male infant of 2 to 6 weeks.
Memory hook: Projectile non-bilious vomiting.
11 · Growth and development
At what age does a child typically start to use a pincer grasp?
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About 9 to 10 months.
Memory hook: Pincer at nine.
12 · Growth and development
At what age does a child typically copy a circle?
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About 3 years; a cross at 4 years and a square at 4.5 to 5 years.
Memory hook: Circle 3, cross 4, square 5.
13 · Growth and development
At what age does a child typically ride a tricycle?
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About 3 years.
Memory hook: Three wheels, three years.
14 · Growth and development
When do the anterior and posterior fontanelles normally close?
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Posterior by about 2 to 3 months; anterior by about 18 months (range 9 to 18 months).
Memory hook: Posterior first, anterior at 18 months.
15 · Growth and development
What is the average weight gain per year in childhood between ages 2 and 10?
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About 2 to 3 kg per year.
Memory hook: 2 to 3 kg a year.
16 · Growth and development
What is the average length of a term newborn and of a 1-year-old?
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About 50 cm at birth and about 75 cm at 1 year.
Memory hook: 50 then 75.
17 · Growth and development
What is the corrected age for a premature infant?
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Chronological age minus the number of weeks born before 40 weeks; used for assessing development in the first 2 years.
Memory hook: Count from the due date.
18 · Neonatology
What is the definition of low birth weight and very low birth weight?
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Low birth weight is below 2500 g; very low birth weight is below 1500 g.
Memory hook: 2500 and 1500 are the cut-offs.
19 · Neonatology
What defines a preterm baby?
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Birth before 37 completed weeks of gestation.
Memory hook: Under 37 weeks.
20 · Neonatology
What is physiological jaundice's usual onset and duration in a term baby?
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Appears after 24 hours (typically day 2 to 3), peaks by day 4 to 5 and resolves by about 2 weeks.
Memory hook: Not in the first day.
21 · Neonatology
What does jaundice persisting beyond 2 weeks in a term baby need to exclude?
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Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia such as biliary atresia and neonatal hepatitis; also hypothyroidism and breast milk jaundice.
Memory hook: Prolonged jaundice, check the direct bilirubin.
22 · Neonatology
What is kernicterus?
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Bilirubin encephalopathy caused by deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei.
Memory hook: Yellow staining of the basal ganglia.
23 · Neonatology
What is the treatment of choice for severe neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia that fails phototherapy?
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Exchange transfusion.
Memory hook: Phototherapy first, exchange if it fails.
24 · Neonatology
What is deficient in respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn?
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Phospholipid surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes; lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio above 2 suggests lung maturity.
Memory hook: L/S ratio above 2 is mature.
25 · Neonatology
What is the classic chest radiograph finding in hyaline membrane disease?
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Ground-glass appearance with air bronchograms and low lung volumes.
Memory hook: Ground glass with air bronchograms.
26 · Neonatology
Which antenatal drug reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm babies?
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Antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone or dexamethasone) to the mother.
Memory hook: Steroids ripen the lung.
27 · Neonatology
What is the typical radiological sign of necrotising enterocolitis?
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Pneumatosis intestinalis (gas within the bowel wall); portal venous gas and pneumoperitoneum indicate severe disease.
Memory hook: Gas in the wall.
28 · Nutrition and malnutrition
Which deficiency causes kwashiorkor?
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Protein deficiency with relatively adequate calories, presenting with oedema, hypoalbuminaemia and fatty liver.
Memory hook: Oedema distinguishes kwashiorkor.
29 · Nutrition and malnutrition
What is the characteristic feature of marasmus?
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Severe wasting from inadequate calories, with no oedema, an old-man look and loss of subcutaneous fat.
Memory hook: Wasted but not swollen.
30 · Nutrition and malnutrition
What is the WHO mid-upper arm circumference cut-off for severe acute malnutrition in children aged 6 to 59 months?
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Below 11.5 cm; bilateral pitting oedema or weight-for-height below -3 SD also define it.
Memory hook: 11.5 cm.
31 · Nutrition and malnutrition
Why is hypoglycaemia and hypothermia a priority in treating severe acute malnutrition?
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These are leading causes of early death, so frequent feeds, warmth and glucose are given first.
Memory hook: Keep warm and fed.
32 · Nutrition and malnutrition
Which ORS is used in severe acute malnutrition with dehydration?
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ReSoMal, which has lower sodium and higher potassium than standard ORS.
Memory hook: Low sodium, high potassium.
33 · Nutrition and malnutrition
What is the F-75 formula used for?
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The stabilisation phase of severe acute malnutrition management.
Memory hook: F-75 stabilises, F-100 rebuilds.
34 · Nutrition and malnutrition
Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets in children?
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Vitamin D deficiency, with raised alkaline phosphatase and low or normal calcium and phosphate.
Memory hook: Raised ALP is the clue.
35 · Nutrition and malnutrition
What are the radiological features of active rickets at the wrist?
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Widening, cupping and fraying of the metaphysis.
Memory hook: Cupping and fraying.
36 · Nutrition and malnutrition
What is the recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding?
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The first 6 months of life, with complementary feeding started thereafter alongside continued breastfeeding.
Memory hook: Six months exclusive.
37 · Nutrition and malnutrition
Which breast milk protein is the predominant whey protein?
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Alpha-lactalbumin, which is easily digested; casein is the minor protein in human milk.
Memory hook: Whey dominates human milk.
38 · Immunisation
Which vaccines are live attenuated among BCG, measles, hepatitis B and tetanus toxoid?
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BCG and measles are live attenuated; hepatitis B is a recombinant subunit and tetanus is a toxoid.
Memory hook: Live: BCG, measles, MMR, OPV.
39 · Immunisation
Which vaccines are damaged by freezing?
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Hepatitis B, DPT, DT, TT, pentavalent and IPV; check with the shake test.
Memory hook: Toxoids and adsorbed vaccines hate freezing.
40 · Immunisation
What is the correct site and route for BCG?
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Intradermal over the left deltoid (upper arm).
Memory hook: Left arm, intradermal.
41 · Immunisation
Which vaccine type is rotavirus vaccine and what adverse event is it linked to?
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A live oral vaccine linked to a small risk of intussusception.
Memory hook: Live oral, watch for intussusception.
42 · Paediatric infections
Which organism causes diphtheria and what is the characteristic membrane?
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae; a grey, adherent pseudomembrane that bleeds on removal.
Memory hook: Bleeds when scraped.
43 · Paediatric infections
What is the whooping cough organism and its hallmark feature?
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Bordetella pertussis; paroxysmal cough ending in an inspiratory whoop with lymphocytosis.
Memory hook: Lymphocytosis, whoop.
44 · Paediatric infections
What is the treatment of choice for pertussis?
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A macrolide such as azithromycin.
Memory hook: Macrolide for whooping cough.
45 · Paediatric infections
Which virus causes roseola infantum and what is its classic sequence?
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Human herpesvirus 6; high fever for 3 days followed by a rash as the fever subsides.
Memory hook: Rash after the fever breaks.
46 · Paediatric infections
Which virus causes erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)?
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Parvovirus B19, with a slapped-cheek rash.
Memory hook: Slapped cheeks.
47 · Paediatric infections
Which complication follows mumps in post-pubertal males?
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Orchitis, usually unilateral.
Memory hook: Mumps orchitis.
48 · Paediatric infections
What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?
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Respiratory syncytial virus, in infants under 2 years.
Memory hook: RSV and wheeze.
49 · Paediatric infections
Which sign suggests epiglottitis in a child?
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Drooling, a toothpaste-like muffled voice and a tripod posture; the thumb sign on lateral neck X-ray.
Memory hook: Thumb sign.
50 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
What is the commonest cause of Down syndrome?
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Meiotic non-disjunction giving trisomy 21, about 95 percent of cases and related to maternal age.
Memory hook: Non-disjunction.
51 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
Which congenital heart defect is most common in Down syndrome?
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Endocardial cushion defect (atrioventricular septal defect).
Memory hook: Cushion defect.
52 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
What is the karyotype of Turner syndrome?
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45,X; short stature, streaked ovaries, webbed neck and coarctation of the aorta.
Memory hook: 45,X.
53 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
What is the karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome?
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47,XXY, with tall stature, small testes and infertility.
Memory hook: XXY.
54 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
What is the molecular basis of fragile X syndrome?
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CGG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the FMR1 gene, the commonest inherited cause of intellectual disability.
Memory hook: CGG repeats.
55 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
Which metabolic disorder gives a mousy odour and what is the enzyme defect?
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Phenylketonuria; deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase. Treat with a low phenylalanine diet.
Memory hook: Mousy smell.
56 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
Which test screens newborns for congenital hypothyroidism?
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Measurement of TSH (or T4) on a cord blood or heel-prick sample.
Memory hook: Screen early to protect the brain.
57 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
What is the inheritance of Duchenne muscular dystrophy and its hallmark sign?
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X-linked recessive; Gowers sign with calf pseudohypertrophy and raised CPK.
Memory hook: Gowers sign.
58 · Genetic and metabolic disorders
What is the commonest cause of ambiguous genitalia in a female infant?
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Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which raises 17-hydroxyprogesterone.
Memory hook: Check 17-OHP.
59 · Systemic paediatrics
What is the most common acyanotic congenital heart disease?
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Ventricular septal defect.
Memory hook: VSD is commonest.
60 · Systemic paediatrics
What murmur is characteristic of a patent ductus arteriosus?
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A continuous machinery murmur at the left infraclavicular area.
Memory hook: Machinery murmur.
61 · Systemic paediatrics
Which drug closes a patent ductus arteriosus in a preterm baby?
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Indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis; prostaglandin E1 keeps it open.
Memory hook: NSAID closes it.
62 · Systemic paediatrics
What are the diagnostic criteria involved in Kawasaki disease?
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Fever for 5 days or more with at least four of: conjunctivitis, oral changes, rash, limb changes and cervical lymphadenopathy.
Memory hook: Treat with IVIG and aspirin.
63 · Systemic paediatrics
Which complication of Kawasaki disease is most feared?
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Coronary artery aneurysm.
Memory hook: Look at the coronaries.
64 · Systemic paediatrics
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and its response?
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Minimal change disease, which responds to corticosteroids.
Memory hook: Steroid sensitive.
65 · Systemic paediatrics
What is the classic presentation of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
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Haematuria with oedema, hypertension and low C3 about 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection.
Memory hook: Low C3 that recovers in 8 weeks.
66 · Systemic paediatrics
What is the classic triad of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
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Palpable purpura on the buttocks and legs, abdominal pain and arthritis, with possible nephritis.
Memory hook: IgA vasculitis.
67 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the preferred site for intraosseous access in children?
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The proximal tibia, on the anteromedial surface below the tibial tuberosity.
Memory hook: Tibia if no vein.
68 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the drug and dose for anaphylaxis in children?
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Intramuscular adrenaline 1:1000 at 0.01 mg/kg in the anterolateral thigh.
Memory hook: 0.01 mg/kg IM.
69 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the first-line drug for status epilepticus in a child?
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A benzodiazepine such as intravenous lorazepam or midazolam, or intranasal or buccal midazolam if no access.
Memory hook: Benzodiazepine first.
70 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning?
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N-acetylcysteine, ideally within 8 to 10 hours of ingestion.
Memory hook: NAC replenishes glutathione.
71 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the first aid for a child choking on a foreign body who cannot cough or cry?
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Back blows and chest thrusts in an infant; abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) in a child over 1 year.
Memory hook: Infants: no abdominal thrusts.
72 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the maintenance fluid rule for the first 10 kg of body weight per day?
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100 mL per kg per day for the first 10 kg, then 50 mL per kg for the next 10 kg and 20 mL per kg thereafter.
Memory hook: 100, 50, 20.
73 · Paediatric emergencies
What is the typical age range for simple febrile seizures?
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Between 6 months and 5 years, with fever and no CNS infection; a simple seizure is generalised and lasts under 15 minutes.
Memory hook: Six months to five years.
74 · Growth and development
When does the Moro reflex normally disappear?
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By about 3 to 6 months; persistence beyond this suggests neurological abnormality.
Memory hook: Gone by six months.
Common questions
How many Pediatrics flashcards are there?
74 cards across 14 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the Pediatrics deck?
Immunisation, Congenital heart disease, Development, Neonatology, Diarrhoeal diseases, Growth, Infectious diseases, Neonatal surgery, Growth and development, Nutrition and malnutrition, Paediatric infections, Genetic and metabolic disorders, and more.
Is the Pediatrics deck free?
Pediatrics opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
74 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many Pediatrics cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the Pediatrics cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.