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General Surgery · Vascular surgery: ruptured AAA
Sample itemA 72-year-old with sudden severe back pain, collapse and a pulsatile abdominal mass has a systolic BP of 80 mmHg. What is the best initial approach?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
C. Permissive hypotension with immediate transfer to theatre for repair
The triad of pain, hypotension and a pulsatile mass indicates rupture. Excess fluid raises pressure, dislodges clot and worsens haemorrhage, so permissive hypotension (about 70 to 90 mmHg) is accepted and emergency repair, EVAR if anatomy suits, follows without delay.
Option by option
A. Conservative management
Mortality is nearly certain without repair.
B. CT after full stabilisation over several hours
Delay for imaging in an unstable patient is dangerous.
C. Permissive hypotension with immediate transfer to theatre for repair (correct)
Correct. Rapid control with permissive hypotension is vital.
D. Aggressive crystalloid to reach systolic 140 mmHg before surgery
Over-resuscitation worsens bleeding.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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