Embryology: hypospadias: practice question

A Anatomy question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anatomy · Embryology: hypospadias

Sample item

A newborn boy has the urethral meatus opening on the ventral surface of the penile shaft, with a dorsally hooded prepuce and ventral curvature of the penis. What is the embryological basis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Incomplete fusion of the urethral folds on the ventral surface

Hypospadias results from incomplete fusion of the urethral (genital) folds along the ventral side of the developing penis, leaving the meatus proximal to the glans. Chordee, a ventral curvature, often accompanies it, and the foreskin is deficient ventrally. Epispadias, with a dorsal opening, results from abnormal position of the genital tubercle.

Option by option

  • A. Persistence of the urachus

    Urachal persistence causes urine discharge at the umbilicus.

  • B. Failure of the urorectal septum to descend

    Failure of the urorectal septum to descend produces cloacal anomalies.

  • C. Abnormal positioning of the genital tubercle, so that the urethra opens dorsally

    This describes epispadias, in which the opening is on the dorsal surface.

  • D. Incomplete fusion of the urethral folds on the ventral surface (correct)

    Correct. Incomplete fusion of the urethral folds explains the ventral opening.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Anatomy question

What is the answer to this Anatomy question?

The best answer is D, Incomplete fusion of the urethral folds on the ventral surface. Hypospadias results from incomplete fusion of the urethral (genital) folds along the ventral side of the developing penis, leaving the meatus proximal to the glans.

Why is "Persistence of the urachus" not the answer?

Urachal persistence causes urine discharge at the umbilicus.

Why is "Failure of the urorectal septum to descend" not the answer?

Failure of the urorectal septum to descend produces cloacal anomalies.

Why is "Abnormal positioning of the genital tubercle, so that the urethra ope…" not the answer?

This describes epispadias, in which the opening is on the dorsal surface.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Embryology: hypospadias in Anatomy. Chordee, a ventral curvature, often accompanies it, and the foreskin is deficient ventrally. Epispadias, with a dorsal opening, results from abnormal position of the genital tubercle.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Embryology: hypospadias?

Learn every nerve by its route, its muscles and what a lesion looks like at the bedside. That one habit answers a large share of questions. Then use the flashcards and the other Anatomy questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.