Fractures: ischial apophyseal avulsion: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Fractures: ischial apophyseal avulsion

Sample item

A 15-year-old sprinter feels a sudden pop and severe pain in the buttock while starting a race. Radiographs show a fragment pulled off the ischial tuberosity. Which muscle group is responsible?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Hamstrings

The hamstrings arise from the ischial tuberosity, and forceful contraction in an adolescent can avulse the unfused apophysis. Most injuries are treated conservatively unless displacement is marked. The anterior inferior iliac spine and anterior superior iliac spine are avulsed by the rectus femoris and sartorius respectively.

Option by option

  • A. Hamstrings (correct)

    Correct. The hamstrings originate from the ischial tuberosity.

  • B. Quadriceps

    The quadriceps (rectus femoris) avulses the anterior inferior iliac spine.

  • C. Sartorius

    The sartorius avulses the anterior superior iliac spine.

  • D. Iliopsoas

    The iliopsoas avulses the lesser trochanter.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Hamstrings. The hamstrings arise from the ischial tuberosity, and forceful contraction in an adolescent can avulse the unfused apophysis.

Why is "Quadriceps" not the answer?

The quadriceps (rectus femoris) avulses the anterior inferior iliac spine.

Why is "Sartorius" not the answer?

The sartorius avulses the anterior superior iliac spine.

Why is "Iliopsoas" not the answer?

The iliopsoas avulses the lesser trochanter.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures: ischial apophyseal avulsion in Orthopaedics. Most injuries are treated conservatively unless displacement is marked. The anterior inferior iliac spine and anterior superior iliac spine are avulsed by the rectus femoris and sartorius respectively.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures: ischial apophyseal avulsion?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.