Knee ligament injuries: Pellegrini-Stieda lesion: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Knee ligament injuries: Pellegrini-Stieda lesion

Sample item

A footballer had a valgus knee injury several months ago and has persistent medial knee pain. Radiographs show an ossific shadow adjacent to the medial femoral condyle. What is this lesion and what caused it?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Pellegrini-Stieda lesion after medial collateral ligament injury

Calcification or ossification near the femoral attachment of the medial collateral ligament follows an old MCL injury and is called the Pellegrini-Stieda lesion. It may be painful and limit motion. A Segond fracture is a lateral tibial avulsion associated with ACL tears.

Option by option

  • A. Osteochondroma of the distal femur

    An osteochondroma is a bony outgrowth continuous with the medullary cavity.

  • B. Pellegrini-Stieda lesion after medial collateral ligament injury (correct)

    Correct. Calcification at the femoral MCL origin is the Pellegrini-Stieda lesion.

  • C. Hoffa fracture of the lateral condyle

    A Hoffa fracture is a coronal fracture of the femoral condyle.

  • D. Segond fracture after anterior cruciate rupture

    A Segond fracture is on the lateral tibial plateau.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Pellegrini-Stieda lesion after medial collateral ligament injury. Calcification or ossification near the femoral attachment of the medial collateral ligament follows an old MCL injury and is called the Pellegrini-Stieda lesion.

Why is "Osteochondroma of the distal femur" not the answer?

An osteochondroma is a bony outgrowth continuous with the medullary cavity.

Why is "Hoffa fracture of the lateral condyle" not the answer?

A Hoffa fracture is a coronal fracture of the femoral condyle.

Why is "Segond fracture after anterior cruciate rupture" not the answer?

A Segond fracture is on the lateral tibial plateau.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Knee ligament injuries: Pellegrini-Stieda lesion in Orthopaedics. It may be painful and limit motion. A Segond fracture is a lateral tibial avulsion associated with ACL tears.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Knee ligament injuries: Pellegrini-Stieda lesion?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.