Shoulder: os acromiale: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Shoulder: os acromiale

Sample item

An axillary view of the shoulder in a 35-year-old with impingement pain shows a separate bone fragment at the front of the acromion that is mobile on dynamic examination. What is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Os acromiale, a failure of fusion of an acromial ossification centre

Os acromiale results from failure of fusion of the acromial ossification centres, usually the meso-acromion, and is best seen on the axillary view. It is often incidental but the mobile fragment can cause impingement through traction by the deltoid. It is often bilateral.

Option by option

  • A. A Hill-Sachs defect

    A Hill-Sachs defect is a humeral head impaction.

  • B. Os acromiale, a failure of fusion of an acromial ossification centre (correct)

    Correct. An unfused acromial centre seen on the axillary view is os acromiale.

  • C. A Bankart lesion

    A Bankart lesion is a glenoid labral avulsion.

  • D. An acromial fracture

    An acromial fracture follows trauma and is not usually symmetrical.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Os acromiale, a failure of fusion of an acromial ossification centre. Os acromiale results from failure of fusion of the acromial ossification centres, usually the meso-acromion, and is best seen on the axillary view.

Why is "A Hill-Sachs defect" not the answer?

A Hill-Sachs defect is a humeral head impaction.

Why is "A Bankart lesion" not the answer?

A Bankart lesion is a glenoid labral avulsion.

Why is "An acromial fracture" not the answer?

An acromial fracture follows trauma and is not usually symmetrical.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Shoulder: os acromiale in Orthopaedics. It is often incidental but the mobile fragment can cause impingement through traction by the deltoid. It is often bilateral.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Shoulder: os acromiale?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.