Otology: practice question

A ENT question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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ENT · Otology

Sample item

Which hearing pattern is most typical of presbycusis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Bilateral high-frequency sensorineural loss

Presbycusis is age-related bilateral sensorineural hearing loss that commonly affects high frequencies first, reducing speech discrimination in noisy environments and often progressing gradually over years.

Option by option

  • A. Unilateral low-frequency conductive loss

    Low-frequency conductive loss suggests a different middle-ear process.

  • B. Sudden loss after wax removal only

    Wax removal does not define presbycusis.

  • C. Bilateral high-frequency sensorineural loss (correct)

    Correct: presbycusis usually causes bilateral high-frequency sensorineural loss.

  • D. Normal hearing with severe otalgia

    Severe pain with normal hearing is not the usual age-related hearing-loss pattern.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More ENT questions

Questions about this ENT question

What is the answer to this ENT question?

The best answer is C, Bilateral high-frequency sensorineural loss. Presbycusis is age-related bilateral sensorineural hearing loss that commonly affects high frequencies first, reducing speech discrimination in noisy environments and often progressing gradually over years.

Why is "Unilateral low-frequency conductive loss" not the answer?

Low-frequency conductive loss suggests a different middle-ear process.

Why is "Sudden loss after wax removal only" not the answer?

Wax removal does not define presbycusis.

Why is "Normal hearing with severe otalgia" not the answer?

Severe pain with normal hearing is not the usual age-related hearing-loss pattern.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Otology in ENT. The correct option holds because: Correct: presbycusis usually causes bilateral high-frequency sensorineural loss.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Otology?

Learn tuning fork results and audiogram patterns by sketching them. Then use the flashcards and the other ENT questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.