Trauma: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Trauma

Sample item

A 20-year-old man with a grade III splenic laceration after a bicycle fall is haemodynamically stable on repeated assessment, with a CT showing a small haemoperitoneum and no active contrast blush. What is the best management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Non-operative management with monitoring in a high-dependency setting

Stable patients with blunt splenic injury are managed non-operatively with serial examination, haemoglobin monitoring and bed rest, with angioembolisation for contrast blush. Failure of non-operative management (instability, falling haemoglobin) prompts surgery. Splenic preservation lowers the risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection.

Option by option

  • A. Non-operative management with monitoring in a high-dependency setting (correct)

    Correct. Stable splenic injuries without active bleeding are managed conservatively.

  • B. Laparotomy and splenorrhaphy

    Laparotomy is reserved for instability or failure of conservative treatment.

  • C. Discharge with advice

    Discharge is unsafe because delayed bleeding may occur.

  • D. Immediate splenectomy

    Immediate splenectomy is not needed in a stable patient.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is A, Non-operative management with monitoring in a high-dependency setting. Stable patients with blunt splenic injury are managed non-operatively with serial examination, haemoglobin monitoring and bed rest, with angioembolisation for contrast blush.

Why is "Laparotomy and splenorrhaphy" not the answer?

Laparotomy is reserved for instability or failure of conservative treatment.

Why is "Discharge with advice" not the answer?

Discharge is unsafe because delayed bleeding may occur.

Why is "Immediate splenectomy" not the answer?

Immediate splenectomy is not needed in a stable patient.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Trauma in General Surgery. Failure of non-operative management (instability, falling haemoglobin) prompts surgery. Splenic preservation lowers the risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Trauma?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.