Vascular surgery: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Vascular surgery

Sample item

A 72-year-old hypertensive man collapses with sudden severe abdominal and back pain. He is pale, with a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and a pulsatile abdominal mass. What is the correct management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Immediate transfer to theatre for aneurysm repair

Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm with haemodynamic instability needs immediate surgical or endovascular repair, with permissive hypotension. Aggressive fluid resuscitation to normal pressures raises bleeding and dilutes clotting factors. Imaging is reserved for patients stable enough to travel.

Option by option

  • A. Ultrasound and observation

    Observation is not appropriate for a symptomatic ruptured aneurysm.

  • B. CT angiography after stabilising for two hours

    Delaying for imaging in an unstable patient risks death from exsanguination.

  • C. Immediate transfer to theatre for aneurysm repair (correct)

    Correct. Unstable patients with suspected rupture go directly to theatre.

  • D. Intravenous fluids to normal blood pressure before surgery

    Aiming for normotension increases haemorrhage, and surgery must not wait.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is C, Immediate transfer to theatre for aneurysm repair. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm with haemodynamic instability needs immediate surgical or endovascular repair, with permissive hypotension.

Why is "Ultrasound and observation" not the answer?

Observation is not appropriate for a symptomatic ruptured aneurysm.

Why is "CT angiography after stabilising for two hours" not the answer?

Delaying for imaging in an unstable patient risks death from exsanguination.

Why is "Intravenous fluids to normal blood pressure before surgery" not the answer?

Aiming for normotension increases haemorrhage, and surgery must not wait.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular surgery in General Surgery. Aggressive fluid resuscitation to normal pressures raises bleeding and dilutes clotting factors. Imaging is reserved for patients stable enough to travel.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular surgery?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.