Otology: hearing disorders: practice question

A ENT question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

ENT · Otology: hearing disorders

Sample item

A 68-year-old man has noticed difficulty understanding speech in noisy places and a gradual loss of high-pitched sounds in both ears, with an audiogram showing symmetrical high-frequency sensorineural loss and no other symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Presbycusis

Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss, symmetrical and affecting high frequencies first because of degeneration of hair cells at the basal turn of the cochlea. Speech discrimination in noise is poor. Management is hearing aids and counselling. Otosclerosis causes conductive loss, Meniere's disease causes fluctuating low-frequency loss with vertigo, and acoustic neuroma causes asymmetric loss.

Option by option

  • A. Meniere's disease

    Meniere's disease has episodic vertigo, tinnitus, fullness and fluctuating low-frequency loss.

  • B. Otosclerosis

    Otosclerosis causes conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch.

  • C. Acoustic neuroma

    Acoustic neuroma causes unilateral or asymmetric loss.

  • D. Presbycusis (correct)

    Correct. Symmetrical, gradual, high-frequency loss is typical of age-related change.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More ENT questions

Questions about this ENT question

What is the answer to this ENT question?

The best answer is D, Presbycusis. Presbycusis is age-related sensorineural hearing loss, symmetrical and affecting high frequencies first because of degeneration of hair cells at the basal turn of the cochlea.

Why is "Meniere's disease" not the answer?

Meniere's disease has episodic vertigo, tinnitus, fullness and fluctuating low-frequency loss.

Why is "Otosclerosis" not the answer?

Otosclerosis causes conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch.

Why is "Acoustic neuroma" not the answer?

Acoustic neuroma causes unilateral or asymmetric loss.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Otology: hearing disorders in ENT. Speech discrimination in noise is poor. Management is hearing aids and counselling. Otosclerosis causes conductive loss, Meniere's disease causes fluctuating low-frequency loss with vertigo, and acoustic neuroma causes asymmetric loss.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Otology: hearing disorders?

Learn tuning fork results and audiogram patterns by sketching them. Then use the flashcards and the other ENT questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.