Reproduction: gonadal dysgenesis: practice question

A Physiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Physiology · Reproduction: gonadal dysgenesis

Sample item

A 15-year-old girl has short stature, webbed neck, no breast development and primary amenorrhoea. FSH and LH are markedly high and oestradiol is low. Which mechanism explains the high gonadotropins?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Loss of ovarian follicles removes oestrogen and inhibin negative feedback on the pituitary

In Turner syndrome (45,X) oocytes undergo accelerated atresia, leaving streak ovaries. Without oestradiol and inhibin the pituitary is released from negative feedback, so FSH and LH rise. Oestrogen replacement induces puberty.

Option by option

  • A. Hyperprolactinaemia suppressing gonadotropins

    Hyperprolactinaemia lowers, not raises, gonadotropins.

  • B. Hypothalamic GnRH deficiency

    GnRH deficiency would give low gonadotropins.

  • C. Loss of ovarian follicles removes oestrogen and inhibin negative feedback on the pituitary (correct)

    Correct. Absence of follicles removes negative feedback and raises FSH and LH.

  • D. Peripheral resistance to androgens

    Androgen resistance occurs in 46,XY individuals and is not the cause here.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Physiology question

What is the answer to this Physiology question?

The best answer is C, Loss of ovarian follicles removes oestrogen and inhibin negative feedback on the pituitary. In Turner syndrome (45,X) oocytes undergo accelerated atresia, leaving streak ovaries.

Why is "Hyperprolactinaemia suppressing gonadotropins" not the answer?

Hyperprolactinaemia lowers, not raises, gonadotropins.

Why is "Hypothalamic GnRH deficiency" not the answer?

GnRH deficiency would give low gonadotropins.

Why is "Peripheral resistance to androgens" not the answer?

Androgen resistance occurs in 46,XY individuals and is not the cause here.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Reproduction: gonadal dysgenesis in Physiology. Without oestradiol and inhibin the pituitary is released from negative feedback, so FSH and LH rise. Oestrogen replacement induces puberty.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Reproduction: gonadal dysgenesis?

For each system, sketch the key graph (pressure–volume loop, oxygen dissociation curve, nephron handling) and explain it aloud. Then use the flashcards and the other Physiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.