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General Surgery · Colorectal: familial adenomatous polyposis
Sample itemA 17-year-old boy has rectal bleeding. Colonoscopy shows more than 200 adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. His father had a colectomy for colon cancer at the age of 36. Which germline defect and plan fit best?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
A. APC gene mutation; prophylactic colectomy in early adulthood
Familial adenomatous polyposis is autosomal dominant, caused by a germline APC mutation on chromosome 5q21. Hundreds to thousands of adenomas appear in adolescence and the cancer risk approaches 100% by middle age, so prophylactic colectomy (proctocolectomy or colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis) is advised in early adulthood. Duodenal adenomas need lifelong surveillance.
Option by option
A. APC gene mutation; prophylactic colectomy in early adulthood (correct)
APC loss gives near-certain colorectal cancer, so prophylactic surgery is the standard of care.
B. MLH1 gene mutation; colonoscopy every 1 to 2 years
MLH1 mutation causes Lynch syndrome with few polyps, managed by surveillance rather than a polyposis picture.
C. STK11 gene mutation; endoscopic polypectomy of hamartomas
STK11 mutation causes Peutz-Jeghers syndrome with hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous pigmentation.
D. SMAD4 gene mutation; annual faecal occult blood testing
SMAD4 mutation causes juvenile polyposis with hamartomatous polyps, and faecal occult blood testing is inadequate in any polyposis.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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