Ear and audiology: autoimmune inner ear disease: practice question

A ENT question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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ENT · Ear and audiology: autoimmune inner ear disease

Sample item

A 34-year-old woman develops bilateral sensorineural hearing loss that worsens over six weeks. Examination of the ears is normal and tympanometry is normal. Which treatment is the first to try?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. High-dose oral corticosteroids

Rapidly progressive, usually asymmetric bilateral sensorineural loss over weeks to months suggests autoimmune inner ear disease. It often responds, at least initially, to a trial of high-dose corticosteroids, with cytotoxic or biological agents for steroid-dependent cases. Hearing aids and implants are for loss that has stabilised.

Option by option

  • A. High-dose oral corticosteroids (correct)

    Correct. A steroid trial is the standard first treatment and is also a diagnostic test.

  • B. Immediate cochlear implantation

    Implantation is reserved for stable profound loss that no longer benefits from aids.

  • C. Intratympanic gentamicin

    Gentamicin is ablative and would destroy hearing in an ear that may recover.

  • D. Hearing aids alone with no drug therapy

    Rehabilitation alone ignores a potentially reversible immune process.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More ENT questions

Questions about this ENT question

What is the answer to this ENT question?

The best answer is A, High-dose oral corticosteroids. Rapidly progressive, usually asymmetric bilateral sensorineural loss over weeks to months suggests autoimmune inner ear disease.

Why is "Immediate cochlear implantation" not the answer?

Implantation is reserved for stable profound loss that no longer benefits from aids.

Why is "Intratympanic gentamicin" not the answer?

Gentamicin is ablative and would destroy hearing in an ear that may recover.

Why is "Hearing aids alone with no drug therapy" not the answer?

Rehabilitation alone ignores a potentially reversible immune process.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Ear and audiology: autoimmune inner ear disease in ENT. It often responds, at least initially, to a trial of high-dose corticosteroids, with cytotoxic or biological agents for steroid-dependent cases. Hearing aids and implants are for loss that has stabilised.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Ear and audiology: autoimmune inner ear disease?

Learn tuning fork results and audiogram patterns by sketching them. Then use the flashcards and the other ENT questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.