Hernia and abdominal wall: TEP versus TAPP: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Hernia and abdominal wall: TEP versus TAPP

Sample item

Both TEP and TAPP are laparoscopic mesh repairs for groin hernias. What is the principal feature of the TEP approach compared with TAPP?

AIt works entirely in the preperitoneal spaceBIt is unsuitable for bilateral herniasCIt needs an open Hasson entry into the abdomenDIt requires suturing of a peritoneal flap

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. It works entirely in the preperitoneal space

In TEP the surgeon dissects the preperitoneal space with a balloon or blunt dissection and never enters the peritoneal cavity, which lowers the risk of visceral injury and adhesions. In TAPP the peritoneum is incised and later closed over the mesh.

Option by option

A. It works entirely in the preperitoneal space (correct)
Correct. TEP stays outside the peritoneal cavity throughout, working in the preperitoneal plane.
B. It is unsuitable for bilateral hernias
TEP is well suited to bilateral hernias because both sides are reached through the same space.
C. It needs an open Hasson entry into the abdomen
An open Hasson entry into the abdominal cavity is not required in TEP, which uses a preperitoneal entry.
D. It requires suturing of a peritoneal flap
A peritoneal flap closed over the mesh is a step of TAPP, not TEP.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is A, It works entirely in the preperitoneal space. In TEP the surgeon dissects the preperitoneal space with a balloon or blunt dissection and never enters the peritoneal cavity, which lowers the risk of visceral injury and adhesions.

Why is "It is unsuitable for bilateral hernias" not the answer?

TEP is well suited to bilateral hernias because both sides are reached through the same space.

Why is "It needs an open Hasson entry into the abdomen" not the answer?

An open Hasson entry into the abdominal cavity is not required in TEP, which uses a preperitoneal entry.

Why is "It requires suturing of a peritoneal flap" not the answer?

A peritoneal flap closed over the mesh is a step of TAPP, not TEP.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Hernia and abdominal wall: TEP versus TAPP in General Surgery. In TAPP the peritoneum is incised and later closed over the mesh.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Hernia and abdominal wall: TEP versus TAPP?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.