Peripheral nerve injuries: radial tunnel syndrome: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Peripheral nerve injuries: radial tunnel syndrome

Sample item

A 45-year-old has deep aching pain in the proximal forearm just distal to the lateral epicondyle, worse with repeated forearm rotation. There is no weakness or sensory loss, and tenderness lies over the arcade of Frohse. Which diagnosis fits best?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Radial tunnel syndrome

Radial tunnel syndrome is a compression of the posterior interosseous nerve in the proximal forearm that produces pain without weakness. Tenderness lies 4 to 5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle, which distinguishes it from tennis elbow, where tenderness is at the epicondyle.

Option by option

  • A. Cubital tunnel syndrome

    Cubital tunnel syndrome involves the ulnar nerve at the medial elbow.

  • B. Posterior interosseous nerve palsy with finger drop

    A posterior interosseous palsy produces finger drop from motor loss, which is absent here.

  • C. Radial tunnel syndrome (correct)

    Correct. Pain with no motor deficit and tenderness over the arcade of Frohse points to radial tunnel syndrome.

  • D. Cervical radiculopathy at C8

    A C8 radiculopathy would cause neck pain and sensory loss in the ulnar border of the hand.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Radial tunnel syndrome. Radial tunnel syndrome is a compression of the posterior interosseous nerve in the proximal forearm that produces pain without weakness.

Why is "Cubital tunnel syndrome" not the answer?

Cubital tunnel syndrome involves the ulnar nerve at the medial elbow.

Why is "Posterior interosseous nerve palsy with finger drop" not the answer?

A posterior interosseous palsy produces finger drop from motor loss, which is absent here.

Why is "Cervical radiculopathy at C8" not the answer?

A C8 radiculopathy would cause neck pain and sensory loss in the ulnar border of the hand.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Peripheral nerve injuries: radial tunnel syndrome in Orthopaedics. Tenderness lies 4 to 5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle, which distinguishes it from tennis elbow, where tenderness is at the epicondyle.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Peripheral nerve injuries: radial tunnel syndrome?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.