Antimicrobials: gonorrhoea treatment: practice question

A Pharmacology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pharmacology · Antimicrobials: gonorrhoea treatment

Sample item

A 24-year-old man has purulent urethral discharge, and Gram stain shows intracellular Gram-negative diplococci. Because of widespread quinolone resistance, which single-dose injectable drug is the recommended treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Ceftriaxone

A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhoea because of high resistance to quinolones, penicillins and tetracyclines. Chlamydial co-infection is treated separately.

Option by option

  • A. Doxycycline

    Doxycycline is used for chlamydia and is not a dependable single treatment for gonorrhoea.

  • B. Ciprofloxacin

    Ciprofloxacin is no longer reliable because of resistance.

  • C. Benzathine penicillin

    Benzathine penicillin is used for syphilis, and gonococcal resistance is high.

  • D. Ceftriaxone (correct)

    Correct. A single dose of ceftriaxone is the standard treatment.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pharmacology question

What is the answer to this Pharmacology question?

The best answer is D, Ceftriaxone. A single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhoea because of high resistance to quinolones, penicillins and tetracyclines.

Why is "Doxycycline" not the answer?

Doxycycline is used for chlamydia and is not a dependable single treatment for gonorrhoea.

Why is "Ciprofloxacin" not the answer?

Ciprofloxacin is no longer reliable because of resistance.

Why is "Benzathine penicillin" not the answer?

Benzathine penicillin is used for syphilis, and gonococcal resistance is high.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Antimicrobials: gonorrhoea treatment in Pharmacology. Chlamydial co-infection is treated separately.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Antimicrobials: gonorrhoea treatment?

Learn drugs as classes, then the exception in each class that an examiner would pick. Then use the flashcards and the other Pharmacology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.