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ENT · Larynx: supraglottic carcinoma
Sample itemWhich statement about supraglottic carcinoma is correct?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
A. It has early bilateral nodal metastases because of rich lymphatics
The supraglottis has a rich lymphatic network and tumours often present late with throat discomfort, dysphagia or a neck node, with bilateral nodal spread common. Hoarseness is a late feature.
Option by option
A. It has early bilateral nodal metastases because of rich lymphatics (correct)
Correct. Early and bilateral nodal spread is typical.
B. It always presents with early hoarseness
Hoarseness is typically late.
C. It rarely metastasises
It metastasises early.
D. It is staged only by cord mobility
Staging depends on subsite involvement and invasion, not only mobility.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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