Fractures: Jones fracture: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Fractures: Jones fracture

Sample item

Which statement best describes a Jones fracture?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. A fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal with a high risk of nonunion

A Jones fracture lies in a watershed zone of the proximal fifth metatarsal with poor blood supply and therefore a high rate of delayed union and nonunion. Athletes often need intramedullary screw fixation. Avulsion of the tuberosity, in contrast, heals well in a boot.

Option by option

  • A. A fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal with a high risk of nonunion (correct)

    Correct. This is the definition of a Jones fracture.

  • B. An avulsion of the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal by peroneus brevis

    Tuberosity avulsion is a pseudo-Jones fracture and heals readily.

  • C. A fracture of the neck of the second metatarsal

    Second metatarsal neck fracture is a march fracture.

  • D. A fracture of the cuboid

    Cuboid fractures are different injuries.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, A fracture at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal with a high risk of nonunion. A Jones fracture lies in a watershed zone of the proximal fifth metatarsal with poor blood supply and therefore a high rate of delayed union and nonunion.

Why is "An avulsion of the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal by peroneus bre…" not the answer?

Tuberosity avulsion is a pseudo-Jones fracture and heals readily.

Why is "A fracture of the neck of the second metatarsal" not the answer?

Second metatarsal neck fracture is a march fracture.

Why is "A fracture of the cuboid" not the answer?

Cuboid fractures are different injuries.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Fractures: Jones fracture in Orthopaedics. Athletes often need intramedullary screw fixation. Avulsion of the tuberosity, in contrast, heals well in a boot.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Fractures: Jones fracture?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.