MSK imaging: knee MRI: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · MSK imaging: knee MRI

Sample item

After a twisting football injury, a patient has a positive anterior drawer test, and MRI of the knee shows discontinuity of the ACL and a bone bruise pattern. Which bone bruise pattern is typical?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Lateral femoral condyle and posterolateral tibial plateau

In ACL rupture, the pivot-shift mechanism causes impaction of the lateral femoral condyle against the posterolateral tibial plateau, producing a characteristic kissing contusion pattern. A Segond fracture (avulsion of the lateral tibial plateau) is also associated. Patellar dislocation produces bruising of the medial patella and lateral femoral condyle.

Option by option

  • A. Patella and trochlea

    Patella and trochlea bruising suggests patellar dislocation or contact injuries.

  • B. Tibial tubercle

    Tibial tubercle changes suggest Osgood-Schlatter disease.

  • C. Medial femoral condyle only

    Medial femoral bruise alone is not typical.

  • D. Lateral femoral condyle and posterolateral tibial plateau (correct)

    Correct. Lateral femoral condyle with posterolateral tibial plateau bruising is typical.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is D, Lateral femoral condyle and posterolateral tibial plateau. In ACL rupture, the pivot-shift mechanism causes impaction of the lateral femoral condyle against the posterolateral tibial plateau, producing a characteristic kissing contusion pattern.

Why is "Patella and trochlea" not the answer?

Patella and trochlea bruising suggests patellar dislocation or contact injuries.

Why is "Tibial tubercle" not the answer?

Tibial tubercle changes suggest Osgood-Schlatter disease.

Why is "Medial femoral condyle only" not the answer?

Medial femoral bruise alone is not typical.

What concept does this question test?

It tests MSK imaging: knee MRI in Radiology. A Segond fracture (avulsion of the lateral tibial plateau) is also associated. Patellar dislocation produces bruising of the medial patella and lateral femoral condyle.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study MSK imaging: knee MRI?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.