Vertigo: practice question

A ENT question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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ENT · Vertigo

Sample item

A 55-year-old woman has brief spells of spinning vertigo lasting under a minute when she rolls over in bed. Hearing is normal, and the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre provokes torsional nystagmus after a short latency that fatigues on repetition. Which treatment is most appropriate?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Epley canalith repositioning manoeuvre

These features indicate benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, usually due to otoconial debris in the posterior semicircular canal. The Epley manoeuvre moves the debris back into the utricle and cures most patients.

Option by option

  • A. Vestibular nerve section

    Nerve section is an extreme destructive procedure that is not indicated for a condition that is simply treated.

  • B. Epley canalith repositioning manoeuvre (correct)

    Repositioning clears the displaced otoconia from the canal and abolishes the positional vertigo.

  • C. Long-term vestibular sedatives

    Prolonged sedatives delay central compensation and do not remove the cause.

  • D. Intratympanic gentamicin

    Intratympanic gentamicin is a destructive option reserved for intractable Meniere's disease.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More ENT questions

Questions about this ENT question

What is the answer to this ENT question?

The best answer is B, Epley canalith repositioning manoeuvre. These features indicate benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, usually due to otoconial debris in the posterior semicircular canal.

Why is "Vestibular nerve section" not the answer?

Nerve section is an extreme destructive procedure that is not indicated for a condition that is simply treated.

Why is "Long-term vestibular sedatives" not the answer?

Prolonged sedatives delay central compensation and do not remove the cause.

Why is "Intratympanic gentamicin" not the answer?

Intratympanic gentamicin is a destructive option reserved for intractable Meniere's disease.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vertigo in ENT. The Epley manoeuvre moves the debris back into the utricle and cures most patients.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vertigo?

Learn tuning fork results and audiogram patterns by sketching them. Then use the flashcards and the other ENT questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.