Nuclear medicine: complex regional pain syndrome: practice question

A Radiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Radiology · Nuclear medicine: complex regional pain syndrome

Sample item

A woman develops pain, swelling and allodynia of the hand six weeks after a wrist fracture. A radiograph shows patchy periarticular osteopenia. What is the typical finding on a three-phase bone scan?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Diffusely increased periarticular uptake on delayed images

Early complex regional pain syndrome causes increased blood flow and pool phases and diffusely increased periarticular uptake in the affected limb on delayed images. The pattern is not limited to the fracture. Absent uptake suggests avascular bone or occlusion.

Option by option

  • A. Uptake confined to the fracture site only

    Uptake limited to the fracture reflects ordinary healing and not CRPS.

  • B. Diffusely increased periarticular uptake on delayed images (correct)

    Correct. Diffuse periarticular delayed uptake is typical of early CRPS.

  • C. Absent uptake in all three phases

    Absent uptake in all phases suggests vascular occlusion.

  • D. A single focal photopenic defect at the fracture

    A photopenic defect suggests avascular bone or tumour necrosis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Radiology question

What is the answer to this Radiology question?

The best answer is B, Diffusely increased periarticular uptake on delayed images. Early complex regional pain syndrome causes increased blood flow and pool phases and diffusely increased periarticular uptake in the affected limb on delayed images.

Why is "Uptake confined to the fracture site only" not the answer?

Uptake limited to the fracture reflects ordinary healing and not CRPS.

Why is "Absent uptake in all three phases" not the answer?

Absent uptake in all phases suggests vascular occlusion.

Why is "A single focal photopenic defect at the fracture" not the answer?

A photopenic defect suggests avascular bone or tumour necrosis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Nuclear medicine: complex regional pain syndrome in Radiology. The pattern is not limited to the fracture. Absent uptake suggests avascular bone or occlusion.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Nuclear medicine: complex regional pain syndrome?

Learn signs with the image, and the disease they point to. Then use the flashcards and the other Radiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.