Spine infection: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Spine infection

Sample item

A 35-year-old has back pain, evening fever, weight loss and a kyphotic angular deformity. MRI suggests tuberculous spondylitis. Which region of the spine is most commonly affected?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Thoracolumbar junction

Spinal tuberculosis most commonly involves the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae. Haematogenous spread to the vertebral body leads to collapse, producing a gibbus, and paravertebral cold abscess. Neurological deficit from cord compression is a major complication.

Option by option

  • A. Cervical spine

    The cervical spine is involved much less often.

  • B. Thoracolumbar junction (correct)

    Correct. The dorsolumbar junction is the commonest site.

  • C. Sacrum

    The sacrum is an uncommon site.

  • D. Mid-lumbar spine only

    Involvement is commoner at the thoracolumbar junction than at an isolated mid-lumbar level.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is B, Thoracolumbar junction. Spinal tuberculosis most commonly involves the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae.

Why is "Cervical spine" not the answer?

The cervical spine is involved much less often.

Why is "Sacrum" not the answer?

The sacrum is an uncommon site.

Why is "Mid-lumbar spine only" not the answer?

Involvement is commoner at the thoracolumbar junction than at an isolated mid-lumbar level.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Spine infection in Orthopaedics. Haematogenous spread to the vertebral body leads to collapse, producing a gibbus, and paravertebral cold abscess. Neurological deficit from cord compression is a major complication.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Spine infection?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.