Arthritis: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

Orthopaedics · Arthritis

Sample item

A 62-year-old has activity-related knee pain with brief morning stiffness. Which radiograph pattern best fits osteoarthritis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Asymmetric joint space narrowing with osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis

Osteoarthritis shows asymmetric loss of joint space where load is greatest, marginal osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis and cysts, with preserved bone density. Rheumatoid arthritis causes periarticular osteopenia and uniform loss, while gout gives punched-out erosions with overhanging edges.

Option by option

  • A. Uniform joint space loss with periarticular osteopenia and marginal erosions

    Periarticular osteopenia with marginal erosions is typical of rheumatoid arthritis.

  • B. Punched-out erosions with overhanging edges

    Punched-out erosions with overhanging edges are characteristic of gout.

  • C. Asymmetric joint space narrowing with osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis (correct)

    Correct. These changes together define degenerative joint disease.

  • D. Bridging syndesmophytes with sacroiliac fusion

    Bridging syndesmophytes with sacroiliac fusion belong to ankylosing spondylitis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is C, Asymmetric joint space narrowing with osteophytes and subchondral sclerosis. Osteoarthritis shows asymmetric loss of joint space where load is greatest, marginal osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis and cysts, with preserved bone density.

Why is "Uniform joint space loss with periarticular osteopenia and marginal e…" not the answer?

Periarticular osteopenia with marginal erosions is typical of rheumatoid arthritis.

Why is "Punched-out erosions with overhanging edges" not the answer?

Punched-out erosions with overhanging edges are characteristic of gout.

Why is "Bridging syndesmophytes with sacroiliac fusion" not the answer?

Bridging syndesmophytes with sacroiliac fusion belong to ankylosing spondylitis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Arthritis in Orthopaedics. Rheumatoid arthritis causes periarticular osteopenia and uniform loss, while gout gives punched-out erosions with overhanging edges.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Arthritis?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.