Shoulder: practice question

A Orthopaedics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Orthopaedics · Shoulder

Sample item

A 55-year-old diabetic woman has a painful stiff shoulder, with both active and passive movement restricted, especially external rotation. The radiograph is normal. What is the diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

Adhesive capsulitis is a fibrotic contracture of the glenohumeral capsule, more common in diabetics and middle-aged women. Both active and passive range are limited, external rotation most, and the radiograph is normal. It usually resolves slowly over many months to a few years.

Option by option

  • A. Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) (correct)

    Correct. Global restriction of active and passive motion with a normal radiograph is typical.

  • B. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis

    Osteoarthritis would show joint space narrowing and osteophytes on the radiograph.

  • C. Full-thickness rotator cuff tear

    A cuff tear causes weak active elevation but passive movement is usually preserved.

  • D. Posterior shoulder dislocation

    Posterior dislocation follows trauma or seizures and is visible on imaging with fixed internal rotation.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Orthopaedics questions

Questions about this Orthopaedics question

What is the answer to this Orthopaedics question?

The best answer is A, Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder). Adhesive capsulitis is a fibrotic contracture of the glenohumeral capsule, more common in diabetics and middle-aged women.

Why is "Glenohumeral osteoarthritis" not the answer?

Osteoarthritis would show joint space narrowing and osteophytes on the radiograph.

Why is "Full-thickness rotator cuff tear" not the answer?

A cuff tear causes weak active elevation but passive movement is usually preserved.

Why is "Posterior shoulder dislocation" not the answer?

Posterior dislocation follows trauma or seizures and is visible on imaging with fixed internal rotation.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Shoulder in Orthopaedics. Both active and passive range are limited, external rotation most, and the radiograph is normal. It usually resolves slowly over many months to a few years.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Shoulder?

Pair each fracture with its classic complication and nerve injured. Then use the flashcards and the other Orthopaedics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.