Complications, recovery, and safety culture: curriculum recognition: practice question

A Anaesthesia question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Anaesthesia · Complications, recovery, and safety culture: curriculum recognition

Sample item

A 22-year-old man has a closed femoral shaft fracture. Thirty-six hours later he becomes breathless and confused with hypoxaemia and a petechial rash over the chest, axillae and conjunctivae. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Fat embolism syndrome

Fat embolism syndrome follows long-bone fracture or intramedullary instrumentation and presents after a latent period of 24 to 72 hours with respiratory distress, neurological change and petechiae. Treatment is supportive, with oxygen, ventilation if needed and early fracture fixation. The petechial rash is the feature that distinguishes it from thromboembolism.

Option by option

  • A. Acute pulmonary oedema from heart failure

    Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema would not cause petechiae in a young man with no heart disease.

  • B. Fat embolism syndrome (correct)

    Correct. The latent period, hypoxia, confusion and petechiae after a long-bone fracture are typical.

  • C. Aspiration pneumonitis

    Aspiration pneumonitis follows loss of airway reflexes and has no petechial rash.

  • D. Pulmonary thromboembolism

    Pulmonary thromboembolism causes breathlessness and hypoxia but not a petechial rash and confusion in this pattern.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Anaesthesia question

What is the answer to this Anaesthesia question?

The best answer is B, Fat embolism syndrome. Fat embolism syndrome follows long-bone fracture or intramedullary instrumentation and presents after a latent period of 24 to 72 hours with respiratory distress, neurological change and petechiae.

Why is "Acute pulmonary oedema from heart failure" not the answer?

Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema would not cause petechiae in a young man with no heart disease.

Why is "Aspiration pneumonitis" not the answer?

Aspiration pneumonitis follows loss of airway reflexes and has no petechial rash.

Why is "Pulmonary thromboembolism" not the answer?

Pulmonary thromboembolism causes breathlessness and hypoxia but not a petechial rash and confusion in this pattern.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Complications, recovery, and safety culture: curriculum recognition in Anaesthesia. Treatment is supportive, with oxygen, ventilation if needed and early fracture fixation. The petechial rash is the feature that distinguishes it from thromboembolism.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Complications, recovery, and safety culture: curriculum recognition?

Make a table of each agent, its key advantage and its main side effect. Then use the flashcards and the other Anaesthesia questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.