Dentistry flashcards for NEET PG
89 cards. Read the question, answer in your head, then check. For spaced repetition, study the deck in the app.
What this deck is for
These 89 cards pick out single facts in Dentistry that the exam keeps returning to: Tooth development, Dental tissues, Oral pathology, Oral medicine, Facial surgery, Anaesthesia and more. Learn the dental formula, eruption ages and tooth structure once, as tables. Cards are a starting set, not full coverage of the subject; the study guide lists the full map.
Where students slip in Dentistry: Mixing up the odontogenic cysts and tumours that look alike on an X-ray. Read the Dentistry study guide.
1 · Tooth development
Deciduous dental formula, and how many teeth?
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Per quadrant: 2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 molars. 20 teeth in all.
Memory hook: 2-1-2, no premolars.
2 · Tooth development
Permanent dental formula, and how many teeth?
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Per quadrant: 2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, 3 molars. 32 teeth in all.
Memory hook: 2-1-2-3.
3 · Tooth development
What does Hertwig's epithelial root sheath do?
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It induces root dentine formation and moulds the shape and number of the roots.
Memory hook: Hertwig shapes the root.
4 · Dental tissues
Which is the most highly mineralised tissue in the body?
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Enamel, about 96% inorganic.
Memory hook: Hardest tissue, cannot repair itself.
5 · Dental tissues
What does cementum do?
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It covers the root and anchors the periodontal ligament fibres (Sharpey's fibres) to the tooth.
Memory hook: The glue of the root.
6 · Oral pathology
Classic X-ray appearance and site of ameloblastoma?
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Multilocular 'soap bubble' radiolucency, usually in the mandibular molar and ramus region.
Memory hook: Soap bubbles in the jaw.
7 · Oral pathology
Which jaw cyst has a high recurrence rate and links to Gorlin syndrome?
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Odontogenic keratocyst; Gorlin (basal cell naevus) syndrome involves PTCH1 mutations.
Memory hook: Keratocyst comes back.
8 · Oral pathology
Which congenital infection causes notched, peg-shaped incisors and mulberry molars?
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Congenital syphilis: Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars.
Memory hook: Hutchinson's teeth.
9 · Oral pathology
What does dentinogenesis imperfecta look like?
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Opalescent grey-brown teeth with bulbous crowns and obliterated pulp chambers.
Memory hook: Opalescent, bulbous crowns.
10 · Oral pathology
Tetracycline given during tooth development causes what?
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Yellow-brown staining of the teeth.
Memory hook: Avoid in pregnancy and young children.
11 · Oral medicine
What is leukoplakia?
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A white patch that cannot be wiped off and cannot be called any other disease; it is potentially malignant.
Memory hook: White, fixed, biopsy it.
12 · Oral medicine
Key features of oral submucous fibrosis and its cause?
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Burning on eating spicy food, blanched stiff mucosa, fibrous bands and trismus; caused by areca nut chewing; potentially malignant.
Memory hook: Areca nut, trismus.
13 · Oral medicine
Oral cancer risk factors common in India?
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Tobacco chewing and smoking, areca nut and alcohol; the commonest type is squamous cell carcinoma.
Memory hook: Tobacco plus areca.
14 · Facial surgery
Describe the three Le Fort fractures.
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I: horizontal, palate separated from the face. II: pyramidal, through the nasal bridge. III: craniofacial disjunction.
Memory hook: I low, II pyramid, III high.
15 · Facial surgery
What is Ludwig angina and why is it dangerous?
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Bilateral spreading cellulitis of the submandibular, sublingual and submental spaces, usually from a lower molar; it can obstruct the airway.
Memory hook: Floor of mouth swells, airway at risk.
16 · Facial surgery
When are cleft lip and cleft palate usually repaired?
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Lip at about 3 months; palate at about 9 to 12 months, before speech develops.
Memory hook: Lip first, palate before words.
17 · Anaesthesia
Which nerve does an inferior alveolar nerve block numb?
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The inferior alveolar nerve, from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; it numbs the lower teeth on that side.
Memory hook: V3, lower teeth.
18 · Periodontal disease
How do gingivitis and periodontitis differ?
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Gingivitis is reversible inflammation of the gum only; periodontitis adds loss of attachment and bone and is not fully reversible.
Memory hook: Bone loss means periodontitis.
19 · Community dentistry
Optimal fluoride level in drinking water, and the problem with excess?
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About 1 ppm (mg/L); higher levels cause dental fluorosis and, much higher, skeletal fluorosis.
Memory hook: 1 ppm protects, more stains.
20 · Community dentistry
What does the DMFT index measure?
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Decayed, Missing and Filled Teeth in the permanent dentition (dmft for deciduous teeth).
Memory hook: Caries experience, counted per person.
21 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
Which deciduous tooth usually erupts first, and at what age?
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The mandibular central incisor, at about 6 months.
Memory hook: Lower front teeth lead.
22 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
In what order do the deciduous teeth erupt?
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Central incisor, lateral incisor, first molar, canine, second molar (A, B, D, C, E).
Memory hook: ABDCE.
23 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
Which permanent tooth erupts first, and at what age?
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The mandibular first molar, at about 6 years, behind the last deciduous molar.
Memory hook: The six-year molar.
24 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
At what age do third molars usually erupt?
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Between about 17 and 21 years.
Memory hook: Wisdom comes late.
25 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
Name the stages of tooth germ development in order.
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Bud, cap, bell, then apposition and maturation.
Memory hook: Bud, cap, bell.
26 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
From which cells do odontoblasts and ameloblasts arise?
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Odontoblasts from dental papilla (neural crest ectomesenchyme); ameloblasts from the inner enamel epithelium.
Memory hook: Dentine from mesenchyme, enamel from epithelium.
27 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
Which tooth is most commonly impacted?
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The mandibular third molar.
Memory hook: Wisdom teeth run out of room.
28 · Tooth development and dental anatomy
How many cusps does the mandibular first molar usually have?
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Five: three buccal and two lingual.
Memory hook: 3 + 2.
29 · Oral histology and anatomy
Which cell forms enamel, and can enamel regenerate?
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The ameloblast forms it, but once the tooth erupts ameloblasts are lost, so enamel cannot regenerate.
Memory hook: No cells left to repair it.
30 · Oral histology and anatomy
Which cell forms dentine, and what does it do throughout life?
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The odontoblast; it keeps laying down secondary dentine, and tertiary (reparative) dentine in response to injury.
Memory hook: Pulp chamber shrinks with age.
31 · Oral histology and anatomy
What sensation does dental pulp carry?
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Pain only, whatever the stimulus, because it is supplied by free nerve endings.
Memory hook: Hot, cold or sweet all feel like pain.
32 · Oral histology and anatomy
Name the four components of the periodontium.
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Gingiva, periodontal ligament, cementum and alveolar bone.
Memory hook: The tooth's support system.
33 · Oral histology and anatomy
Where does the parotid (Stensen) duct open?
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On the buccal mucosa opposite the upper second molar.
Memory hook: Stensen, second molar.
34 · Oral histology and anatomy
Where does the submandibular (Wharton) duct open?
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At the sublingual papilla, beside the lingual frenulum on the floor of the mouth.
Memory hook: Stones here are common.
35 · Oral histology and anatomy
Which muscle opens the mouth, and which muscles close it?
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Lateral pterygoid opens (protrudes the jaw); masseter, temporalis and medial pterygoid close it.
Memory hook: All supplied by V3.
36 · Oral histology and anatomy
Which nerves supply the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
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Lingual nerve for general sensation and chorda tympani (facial) for taste.
Memory hook: V3 feels, VII tastes.
37 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
Which is the most common odontogenic cyst?
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The radicular (periapical) cyst, arising from epithelial rests after pulp necrosis.
Memory hook: Dead tooth, cyst at the apex.
38 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
What is a dentigerous cyst?
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A cyst attached at the cemento-enamel junction enclosing the crown of an unerupted tooth, most often a mandibular third molar.
Memory hook: Cyst around the crown.
39 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
Which odontogenic tumour shows Liesegang ring calcifications?
Show the answer
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic (Pindborg) tumour.
Memory hook: Pindborg, rings.
40 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
Which is the commonest odontogenic tumour-like lesion, and what is it?
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Odontoma, a hamartoma made of enamel, dentine and cementum, often found in children.
Memory hook: A tooth-like hamartoma.
41 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
Describe the histology of ameloblastoma.
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Islands of odontogenic epithelium with peripheral palisaded columnar cells showing reverse polarity around a stellate-reticulum-like centre.
Memory hook: Reverse polarity.
42 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
What is cherubism?
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An autosomal dominant disorder (SH3BP2) with bilateral multilocular swelling of the jaws in children that usually regresses after puberty.
Memory hook: Chubby cherub cheeks.
43 · Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours
What is a ranula?
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A mucous retention or extravasation cyst of the sublingual gland on the floor of the mouth, bluish and translucent.
Memory hook: Frog belly.
44 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
Which bacterium initiates dental caries, and which is linked to progression?
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Streptococcus mutans initiates; Lactobacillus is associated with progression into dentine.
Memory hook: Mutans starts it.
45 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
What four factors are needed for caries (Keyes)?
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A susceptible tooth, cariogenic bacteria in plaque, fermentable carbohydrate substrate and time.
Memory hook: Tooth, bugs, sugar, time.
46 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
What is the earliest clinical sign of enamel caries?
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A chalky white spot lesion from subsurface demineralisation, which can still be remineralised.
Memory hook: White spot, reversible.
47 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
At about what pH does enamel begin to demineralise?
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Around pH 5.5, the critical pH.
Memory hook: Below 5.5 enamel dissolves.
48 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
Which teeth are spared in nursing bottle caries and why?
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The mandibular incisors, because the tongue and lower lip protect them while the upper incisors are bathed in milk or sugar.
Memory hook: Upper incisors rot first.
49 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
How do reversible and irreversible pulpitis differ clinically?
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Reversible: brief pain on stimulus that stops when removed. Irreversible: spontaneous, lingering, often night pain needing root canal or extraction.
Memory hook: Lingering pain means irreversible.
50 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
Which material fills the root canal after cleaning and shaping?
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Gutta-percha with a sealer.
Memory hook: Obturation.
51 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
What is calculus and where does supragingival calculus form most?
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Mineralised plaque; commonest on the lingual of lower incisors and buccal of upper molars, near salivary duct openings.
Memory hook: Next to the ducts.
52 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
Describe necrotising ulcerative gingivitis.
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Painful, punched-out, necrotic interdental papillae with bleeding and foul odour, linked to fusiform bacilli and spirochaetes, stress and HIV.
Memory hook: Vincent infection.
53 · Caries, pulp and periodontal disease
Which drugs cause gingival overgrowth?
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Phenytoin, ciclosporin and calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine.
Memory hook: PCN.
54 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
What is the commonest site of oral cancer in India?
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The buccal mucosa and gingivobuccal sulcus, reflecting tobacco quid chewing.
Memory hook: Where the quid sits.
55 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
Compare the malignant potential of erythroplakia and leukoplakia.
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Erythroplakia carries a much higher risk of dysplasia or carcinoma.
Memory hook: Red is more dangerous than white.
56 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
What are the features of oral lichen planus?
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Bilateral white reticular Wickham striae on the buccal mucosa; a potentially malignant disorder.
Memory hook: Lacy white lines.
57 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
How does oral candidiasis differ from leukoplakia?
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Candidal plaques wipe off leaving a red base; leukoplakia does not wipe off.
Memory hook: Thrush scrapes off.
58 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
What is oral hairy leukoplakia and what does it suggest?
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A corrugated white lesion on the lateral tongue that does not wipe off, caused by EBV and seen in HIV.
Memory hook: Lateral tongue, EBV.
59 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
Which virus causes primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
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Herpes simplex virus type 1, typically in young children, with fever and painful vesicles and ulcers on gingiva.
Memory hook: HSV-1.
60 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
What does oral involvement signify in pemphigus vulgaris?
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Painful erosions are often the first sign; biopsy shows intraepidermal acantholysis.
Memory hook: Mouth first.
61 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
What is the classic triad of Behcet disease?
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Recurrent oral aphthae with genital ulcers and uveitis.
Memory hook: Mouth, genitals, eye.
62 · Oral medicine and oral cancer
What is verrucous carcinoma of the oral cavity?
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A slow-growing, well-differentiated exophytic warty carcinoma linked to tobacco chewing, with a good prognosis and rare metastasis.
Memory hook: Warty, low grade.
63 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
What is Guerin sign?
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Ecchymosis in the greater palatine region, seen in Le Fort I fractures.
Memory hook: Palate bruise.
64 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
Which Le Fort fractures can cause CSF rhinorrhoea?
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Le Fort II and III, because they involve the nasal and skull base region.
Memory hook: High fractures leak.
65 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
What is a blowout fracture?
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A fracture of the orbital floor after blunt orbital trauma, with diplopia on upgaze, enophthalmos and infraorbital numbness.
Memory hook: Inferior rectus trapped.
66 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
What are the features of a zygomaticomaxillary complex (tripod) fracture?
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Flattened cheek, infraorbital paraesthesia, subconjunctival haemorrhage and trismus.
Memory hook: Cheek flat, numb.
67 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
Why is the angle of the mandible a weak site?
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The impacted third molar and change in bone shape create a weak point.
Memory hook: Wisdom tooth weakens the angle.
68 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
How is a mandibular fracture generally treated?
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Reduction and fixation with miniplates, or intermaxillary fixation for several weeks, with antibiotics.
Memory hook: Restore the bite first.
69 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
What is dry socket (alveolar osteitis)?
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Severe throbbing pain 2 to 4 days after extraction from loss of the blood clot, exposing bone; treated by irrigation and a medicated dressing.
Memory hook: Lost clot.
70 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
Why should dental extractions be avoided after head and neck radiotherapy?
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Irradiated mandibular bone has poor blood supply and may develop osteoradionecrosis.
Memory hook: Jaw will not heal.
71 · Oral and maxillofacial surgery and facial fractures
Which drug class is linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw?
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Bisphosphonates, especially intravenous, and denosumab, after dental extraction.
Memory hook: Exposed bone that will not heal.
72 · Dental materials and radiology basics
What are the main components of dental amalgam?
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Silver, tin and copper alloy mixed with about 50% mercury.
Memory hook: Silver filling.
73 · Dental materials and radiology basics
What is the key advantage of glass ionomer cement?
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It bonds chemically to tooth and releases fluoride.
Memory hook: Fluoride-releasing filling.
74 · Dental materials and radiology basics
Why is zinc oxide eugenol avoided under composite resin?
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Eugenol inhibits polymerisation of the resin.
Memory hook: Eugenol blocks setting.
75 · Dental materials and radiology basics
Which radiograph best detects interproximal caries?
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The bitewing radiograph.
Memory hook: Bite to see between teeth.
76 · Dental materials and radiology basics
What does an orthopantomogram show?
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A panoramic view of both jaws, teeth, sinuses and the temporomandibular joints.
Memory hook: OPG.
77 · Dental materials and radiology basics
What does loss of lamina dura suggest?
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Generalised loss suggests hyperparathyroidism, among other causes; local loss suggests periapical infection.
Memory hook: Hyperparathyroid jaw.
78 · Dental materials and radiology basics
Which metal is used for dental implants and why?
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Titanium, because it osseointegrates with bone.
Memory hook: Brånemark.
79 · Orthodontics and paediatric dentistry
Describe Angle's classification of malocclusion.
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Based on the first molar relation: Class I normal, Class II distocclusion, Class III mesiocclusion.
Memory hook: Normal, distal, mesial.
80 · Orthodontics and paediatric dentistry
Which malocclusion does prolonged thumb sucking cause?
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Anterior open bite with proclined upper incisors.
Memory hook: Gap in front.
81 · Orthodontics and paediatric dentistry
When is a space maintainer used?
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After premature loss of a deciduous molar to keep space for the permanent successor.
Memory hook: Band and loop.
82 · Orthodontics and paediatric dentistry
What is the ugly duckling stage?
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At about 8 to 9 years, upper incisors flare with a midline gap from the canine crowns; it closes on its own.
Memory hook: Self-correcting.
83 · Orthodontics and paediatric dentistry
At the bone level, how does orthodontic tooth movement occur?
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Osteoclasts resorb bone on the pressure side and osteoblasts form bone on the tension side.
Memory hook: Light force works.
84 · Orthodontics and paediatric dentistry
What are pit and fissure sealants for?
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They prevent caries in the grooves of newly erupted permanent molars.
Memory hook: Seal the grooves.
85 · Community dentistry
What probe does the CPITN use?
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A WHO probe with a 0.5 mm ball tip, over each of six sextants.
Memory hook: Ball tip, sextants.
86 · Community dentistry
Which index grades dental fluorosis?
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Dean's fluorosis index.
Memory hook: Dean.
87 · Community dentistry
Name a household and community method of defluoridation in India.
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The Nalgonda technique, using alum, lime and bleaching powder.
Memory hook: Nalgonda.
88 · Community dentistry
At which ages does the WHO monitor oral health?
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Index ages 5, 12, 15, 35 to 44 and 65 to 74 years; 12 years is the global caries monitoring age.
Memory hook: 12 for DMFT.
89 · Community dentistry
What is primary prevention in dentistry?
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Measures before disease begins, such as water fluoridation, fluoride toothpaste, sealants and diet counselling.
Memory hook: Stop it starting.
Common questions
How many Dentistry flashcards are there?
89 cards across 16 topics. The deck grows as we add material.
Which topics are in the Dentistry deck?
Tooth development, Dental tissues, Oral pathology, Oral medicine, Facial surgery, Anaesthesia, Periodontal disease, Community dentistry, Tooth development and dental anatomy, Oral histology and anatomy, Oral pathology: cysts and odontogenic tumours, Caries, pulp and periodontal disease, and more.
Is the Dentistry deck free?
Dentistry opens with a paid term. The free plan includes the Anatomy, Physiology and Biochemistry decks.
How do spaced-repetition cards work?
You rate each card Again, Hard, Good or Easy. Cards you find hard return soon and cards you know return later, so your time goes where you forget.
What is the memory hook on a card?
89 of these cards carry a one-line hook: a short cue that helps the answer stick. It is optional and appears after you reveal the answer.
How many Dentistry cards should I do a day?
Ten to twenty minutes a day is plenty. A few due cards every day beat a long session once a week.
Can I flip through the cards on this page?
You can read each question and reveal its answer here. For scheduling, ratings and progress, study the deck in the app.
Are the Dentistry cards reviewed by faculty?
Not yet. They are original and still awaiting independent review, so confirm anything important in a standard textbook.