Gynaecological endocrinology: maturation index: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

Try it

OBG · Gynaecological endocrinology: maturation index

Sample item

A vaginal smear is used to assess hormonal status. Which finding on the maturation index indicates a high oestrogen effect?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Predominance of superficial cells

Oestrogen promotes maturation of the vaginal epithelium so superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei predominate at ovulation, whereas progesterone shifts the pattern to intermediate cells. In low-oestrogen states such as menopause or premature ovarian insufficiency, parabasal cells predominate. The maturation index is the percentage of parabasal, intermediate and superficial cells.

Option by option

  • A. Predominance of intermediate cells only

    Intermediate cells predominate under progesterone influence.

  • B. Predominance of parabasal cells

    Parabasal cell predominance reflects oestrogen deficiency.

  • C. Predominance of superficial cells (correct)

    Correct. A shift towards superficial cells shows oestrogen effect.

  • D. Predominance of neutrophils

    Neutrophils indicate inflammation, not hormonal state.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Predominance of superficial cells. Oestrogen promotes maturation of the vaginal epithelium so superficial cells with pyknotic nuclei predominate at ovulation, whereas progesterone shifts the pattern to intermediate cells.

Why is "Predominance of intermediate cells only" not the answer?

Intermediate cells predominate under progesterone influence.

Why is "Predominance of parabasal cells" not the answer?

Parabasal cell predominance reflects oestrogen deficiency.

Why is "Predominance of neutrophils" not the answer?

Neutrophils indicate inflammation, not hormonal state.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological endocrinology: maturation index in OBG. In low-oestrogen states such as menopause or premature ovarian insufficiency, parabasal cells predominate. The maturation index is the percentage of parabasal, intermediate and superficial cells.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological endocrinology: maturation index?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.