Gynecology: complete androgen insensitivity: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynecology: complete androgen insensitivity

Sample item

A phenotypic female has primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, scant pubic hair, absent uterus, and an inguinal gonad. What diagnosis is likely?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

Complete androgen insensitivity occurs in 46,XY individuals with androgen receptor resistance, leading to female external phenotype, absent uterus from anti-Mullerian hormone, and scant pubic hair. Gonadal management requires specialist counseling.

Option by option

  • A. Mullerian agenesis

    Mullerian agenesis usually has normal pubic hair and ovaries.

  • B. Polycystic ovary syndrome

    PCOS causes hyperandrogenism and irregular menses with a uterus present.

  • C. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (correct)

    Correct. Scant hair with absent uterus and inguinal testes is characteristic.

  • D. Premature ovarian insufficiency

    Ovarian insufficiency has low estrogen and impaired breast development if early.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is C, Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome. Complete androgen insensitivity occurs in 46,XY individuals with androgen receptor resistance, leading to female external phenotype, absent uterus from anti-Mullerian hormone, and scant pubic hair.

Why is "Mullerian agenesis" not the answer?

Mullerian agenesis usually has normal pubic hair and ovaries.

Why is "Polycystic ovary syndrome" not the answer?

PCOS causes hyperandrogenism and irregular menses with a uterus present.

Why is "Premature ovarian insufficiency" not the answer?

Ovarian insufficiency has low estrogen and impaired breast development if early.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynecology: complete androgen insensitivity in OBG. Gonadal management requires specialist counseling.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynecology: complete androgen insensitivity?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.