Gynaecological oncology: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological oncology

Sample item

A 48-year-old woman with Lynch syndrome (MSH2 mutation) has abnormal uterine bleeding. Which statement about her cancer risk is correct?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. She has a high lifetime risk of endometrial carcinoma, comparable to or exceeding colorectal risk

Lynch syndrome is a mismatch repair deficiency. In women, endometrial cancer is a leading first cancer with a lifetime risk comparable to colorectal cancer, and ovarian cancer risk is also raised. Endometrial sampling is needed for abnormal bleeding, and risk-reducing hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy may be offered after childbearing.

Option by option

  • A. She has a high lifetime risk of endometrial carcinoma, comparable to or exceeding colorectal risk (correct)

    Correct. Endometrial cancer is a major component of the syndrome.

  • B. Her main gynaecological risk is cervical squamous carcinoma

    Cervical cancer is HPV-driven and is not the main Lynch gynaecological cancer.

  • C. She has no increased ovarian cancer risk

    Ovarian cancer risk is raised in Lynch syndrome.

  • D. Her endometrial cancer risk is the same as the general population

    The risk is far above the general population.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is A, She has a high lifetime risk of endometrial carcinoma, comparable to or exceeding colorectal risk. Lynch syndrome is a mismatch repair deficiency.

Why is "Her main gynaecological risk is cervical squamous carcinoma" not the answer?

Cervical cancer is HPV-driven and is not the main Lynch gynaecological cancer.

Why is "She has no increased ovarian cancer risk" not the answer?

Ovarian cancer risk is raised in Lynch syndrome.

Why is "Her endometrial cancer risk is the same as the general population" not the answer?

The risk is far above the general population.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological oncology in OBG. In women, endometrial cancer is a leading first cancer with a lifetime risk comparable to colorectal cancer, and ovarian cancer risk is also raised. Endometrial sampling is needed for abnormal bleeding, and risk-reducing hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy may be offered after childbearing.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological oncology?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.