Retina: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Ophthalmology · Retina

Sample item

A highly myopic 45-year-old reports flashes and new floaters followed by a curtain-like shadow in the upper field. Pigment cells are seen in the anterior vitreous, and the retina in the lower periphery appears elevated and corrugated, with a horseshoe tear. What best describes the mechanism and the appropriate treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Rhegmatogenous detachment, treated by surgery such as vitrectomy or scleral buckle

A retinal break lets liquefied vitreous enter the subretinal space, giving a rhegmatogenous detachment, and tobacco dust (Shafer's sign) is a clue. The treatment is surgical, by pneumatic retinopexy, scleral buckling or vitrectomy, which closes the break.

Option by option

  • A. Rhegmatogenous detachment, treated by surgery such as vitrectomy or scleral buckle (correct)

    Correct. A full-thickness break with liquefied vitreous passing behind the retina fits.

  • B. Exudative detachment, treated by high-dose oral steroids

    Exudative detachment arises from subretinal fluid without a break and is treated by treating the cause.

  • C. Central retinal artery occlusion, treated by ocular massage

    Artery occlusion gives sudden painless loss with a cherry-red spot and no detached, corrugated retina.

  • D. Tractional detachment, treated by laser photocoagulation of the whole retina alone

    Tractional detachment is due to fibrovascular proliferation, as in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Ophthalmology questions

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is A, Rhegmatogenous detachment, treated by surgery such as vitrectomy or scleral buckle. A retinal break lets liquefied vitreous enter the subretinal space, giving a rhegmatogenous detachment, and tobacco dust (Shafer's sign) is a clue.

Why is "Exudative detachment, treated by high-dose oral steroids" not the answer?

Exudative detachment arises from subretinal fluid without a break and is treated by treating the cause.

Why is "Central retinal artery occlusion, treated by ocular massage" not the answer?

Artery occlusion gives sudden painless loss with a cherry-red spot and no detached, corrugated retina.

Why is "Tractional detachment, treated by laser photocoagulation of the whole…" not the answer?

Tractional detachment is due to fibrovascular proliferation, as in proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Retina in Ophthalmology. The treatment is surgical, by pneumatic retinopexy, scleral buckling or vitrectomy, which closes the break.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Retina?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.