Macular disease: practice question

A Ophthalmology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Ophthalmology · Macular disease

Sample item

A 72-year-old has sudden distortion of straight lines with central blurring in one eye. The fundus shows subretinal haemorrhage and fluid at the macula with drusen in both eyes. Which treatment is most appropriate?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Intravitreal anti-VEGF injections

Neovascular (wet) age-related macular degeneration is caused by choroidal neovascularisation leaking fluid and blood under the macula. Repeated intravitreal anti-VEGF injections such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab or aflibercept are the standard of care. Antioxidant supplements slow progression only in intermediate dry disease.

Option by option

  • A. Intravitreal anti-VEGF injections (correct)

    Correct. They suppress the neovascular membrane and preserve vision.

  • B. Grid laser photocoagulation to the entire retina

    Panretinal laser would destroy peripheral retina and not treat a macular membrane.

  • C. Oral antioxidant vitamins alone

    Antioxidant supplements are not adequate for active neovascular disease.

  • D. Pilocarpine eye drops

    Pilocarpine is a miotic for glaucoma and has no role.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Ophthalmology questions

Questions about this Ophthalmology question

What is the answer to this Ophthalmology question?

The best answer is A, Intravitreal anti-VEGF injections. Neovascular (wet) age-related macular degeneration is caused by choroidal neovascularisation leaking fluid and blood under the macula.

Why is "Grid laser photocoagulation to the entire retina" not the answer?

Panretinal laser would destroy peripheral retina and not treat a macular membrane.

Why is "Oral antioxidant vitamins alone" not the answer?

Antioxidant supplements are not adequate for active neovascular disease.

Why is "Pilocarpine eye drops" not the answer?

Pilocarpine is a miotic for glaucoma and has no role.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Macular disease in Ophthalmology. Repeated intravitreal anti-VEGF injections such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab or aflibercept are the standard of care. Antioxidant supplements slow progression only in intermediate dry disease.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Macular disease?

Group the red eye by what to examine and what the pupil does. Then use the flashcards and the other Ophthalmology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.