Virology: mumps: practice question

A Microbiology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Microbiology · Virology: mumps

Sample item

A 22-year-old man has fever and painful parotid swelling. Five days later he develops fever with a painful, swollen, tender right testis. What is the usual course of this complication?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Usually unilateral orchitis, with sterility uncommon

Orchitis is the commonest extra-salivary manifestation of mumps in postpubertal males, occurring in a fraction of cases. It is unilateral in most patients and subsequent infertility is uncommon, although some testicular atrophy may occur. Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and the MMR vaccine prevents it.

Option by option

  • A. Usually unilateral orchitis, with sterility uncommon (correct)

    Correct. Mumps orchitis is mostly unilateral and rarely causes sterility.

  • B. Testicular torsion needing emergency orchidopexy

    Torsion is sudden in onset without a preceding parotitis, so it does not fit this sequence.

  • C. Bacterial epididymitis needing surgical drainage

    Bacterial epididymitis follows a urinary or sexually transmitted infection and is not the link here.

  • D. Usually bilateral orchitis with permanent sterility in most patients

    Bilateral involvement is a minority and sterility is uncommon, so this overstates the outcome.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Microbiology questions

Questions about this Microbiology question

What is the answer to this Microbiology question?

The best answer is A, Usually unilateral orchitis, with sterility uncommon. Orchitis is the commonest extra-salivary manifestation of mumps in postpubertal males, occurring in a fraction of cases.

Why is "Testicular torsion needing emergency orchidopexy" not the answer?

Torsion is sudden in onset without a preceding parotitis, so it does not fit this sequence.

Why is "Bacterial epididymitis needing surgical drainage" not the answer?

Bacterial epididymitis follows a urinary or sexually transmitted infection and is not the link here.

Why is "Usually bilateral orchitis with permanent sterility in most patients" not the answer?

Bilateral involvement is a minority and sterility is uncommon, so this overstates the outcome.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Virology: mumps in Microbiology. It is unilateral in most patients and subsequent infertility is uncommon, although some testicular atrophy may occur. Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and the MMR vaccine prevents it.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Virology: mumps?

Make a one-line identity card for each organism: shape and stain, defining test, toxin, disease and drug. Then use the flashcards and the other Microbiology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.