Organic mental disorders: Balint syndrome: practice question

A Psychiatry question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Psychiatry · Organic mental disorders: Balint syndrome

Sample item

After bilateral parieto-occipital infarcts, a 66-year-old man can see only one object at a time in a scene, misreaches when trying to grasp an object under visual guidance, and cannot voluntarily shift his gaze to a target. Which syndrome is this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Balint syndrome

Balint syndrome is the triad of simultanagnosia, optic ataxia and oculomotor apraxia, caused by bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital junction. Gerstmann syndrome, by contrast, consists of agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and left-right disorientation from a dominant angular gyrus lesion.

Option by option

  • A. Balint syndrome (correct)

    Correct. Simultanagnosia, optic ataxia and gaze apraxia define the syndrome.

  • B. Anton syndrome

    Anton syndrome is denial of blindness in cortical blindness.

  • C. Gerstmann syndrome

    Gerstmann syndrome comprises agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and right-left confusion.

  • D. Kluver-Bucy syndrome

    Kluver-Bucy syndrome follows bilateral temporal lobe damage with placidity and hypersexuality.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Psychiatry question

What is the answer to this Psychiatry question?

The best answer is A, Balint syndrome. Balint syndrome is the triad of simultanagnosia, optic ataxia and oculomotor apraxia, caused by bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital junction.

Why is "Anton syndrome" not the answer?

Anton syndrome is denial of blindness in cortical blindness.

Why is "Gerstmann syndrome" not the answer?

Gerstmann syndrome comprises agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and right-left confusion.

Why is "Kluver-Bucy syndrome" not the answer?

Kluver-Bucy syndrome follows bilateral temporal lobe damage with placidity and hypersexuality.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Organic mental disorders: Balint syndrome in Psychiatry. Gerstmann syndrome, by contrast, consists of agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and left-right disorientation from a dominant angular gyrus lesion.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Organic mental disorders: Balint syndrome?

Learn each diagnosis by its core features and its first-line treatment. Then use the flashcards and the other Psychiatry questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.