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Ophthalmology · Uvea: acute retinal necrosis
Sample itemA healthy 35-year-old has a painful red eye with vitritis, peripheral confluent patches of retinal whitening and occlusive arteriolitis. Which is the correct initial treatment?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
D. Intravenous acyclovir
Acute retinal necrosis is caused by herpes simplex or varicella zoster virus and needs prompt intravenous acyclovir, then oral antivirals. Prophylactic laser may limit later detachment. Steroid alone allows viral spread.
Option by option
A. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
Anti-VEGF is for neovascular disease and has no effect on viral necrosis.
B. Oral prednisolone alone
Steroid alone spreads the virus and is added only after antiviral cover.
C. Laser to the peripheral retina only
Laser alone does not treat the infection.
D. Intravenous acyclovir (correct)
Correct. Antiviral therapy halts the necrosis and protects the fellow eye.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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