Respiratory diseases: practice question

A Pediatrics question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pediatrics · Respiratory diseases

Sample item

A 2-year-old has a barking cough, hoarse voice and inspiratory stridor after a cold. He is playful and has low-grade fever. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Corticosteroid such as dexamethasone

The history is typical of viral croup, a laryngotracheobronchitis. A single dose of corticosteroid reduces airway oedema and shortens the illness, and nebulised adrenaline is added for severe stridor at rest. Antibiotics are not helpful because the cause is viral.

Option by option

  • A. Nebulised salbutamol

    Salbutamol relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and does not relieve subglottic swelling.

  • B. Corticosteroid such as dexamethasone (correct)

    Correct. Steroids reduce laryngeal inflammation and the chance of worsening.

  • C. Examination of the throat with a tongue depressor

    Throat examination can precipitate complete obstruction if epiglottitis were present, and is not treatment.

  • D. Intravenous ceftriaxone

    Antibiotics do not treat a viral illness.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pediatrics question

What is the answer to this Pediatrics question?

The best answer is B, Corticosteroid such as dexamethasone. The history is typical of viral croup, a laryngotracheobronchitis.

Why is "Nebulised salbutamol" not the answer?

Salbutamol relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and does not relieve subglottic swelling.

Why is "Examination of the throat with a tongue depressor" not the answer?

Throat examination can precipitate complete obstruction if epiglottitis were present, and is not treatment.

Why is "Intravenous ceftriaxone" not the answer?

Antibiotics do not treat a viral illness.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Respiratory diseases in Pediatrics. A single dose of corticosteroid reduces airway oedema and shortens the illness, and nebulised adrenaline is added for severe stridor at rest. Antibiotics are not helpful because the cause is viral.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Respiratory diseases?

Memorise milestones and the vaccine schedule as tables and revise them often. Then use the flashcards and the other Pediatrics questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.