Vascular disorders: cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Vascular disorders: cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis

Sample item

A woman with chronic hepatitis C has palpable purpura on the legs, arthralgia and low C4 with positive rheumatoid factor. Which condition is most likely?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Mixed cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis

Hepatitis C is the commonest cause of mixed (type II or III) cryoglobulinaemia, which causes palpable purpura, arthralgia and glomerulonephritis. Rheumatoid factor is often positive and C4 is characteristically low. Treatment includes antiviral therapy for hepatitis C.

Option by option

  • A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

    TTP presents with thrombocytopenia and non-palpable purpura.

  • B. Mixed cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis (correct)

    Correct. Hepatitis C with palpable purpura, low C4 and positive RF indicates cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis.

  • C. Scurvy

    Scurvy causes perifollicular bleeding without vasculitis.

  • D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura

    Henoch-Schonlein purpura has IgA deposition and normal complement.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is B, Mixed cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis. Hepatitis C is the commonest cause of mixed (type II or III) cryoglobulinaemia, which causes palpable purpura, arthralgia and glomerulonephritis.

Why is "Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura" not the answer?

TTP presents with thrombocytopenia and non-palpable purpura.

Why is "Scurvy" not the answer?

Scurvy causes perifollicular bleeding without vasculitis.

Why is "Henoch-Schonlein purpura" not the answer?

Henoch-Schonlein purpura has IgA deposition and normal complement.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Vascular disorders: cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis in Dermatology. Rheumatoid factor is often positive and C4 is characteristically low. Treatment includes antiviral therapy for hepatitis C.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Vascular disorders: cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.