Dermatology: striae distensae: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Dermatology: striae distensae

Sample item

A 17-year-old boy who grew rapidly has multiple linear red-purple bands on the lower back that later became pale and atrophic. What is the underlying mechanism?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Dermal stretching with rupture of elastic fibres, influenced by cortisol

Striae distensae result from dermal stretching and damage to collagen and elastic fibres in genetically susceptible skin, with raised glucocorticoid levels as a promoter. They appear red or purple (striae rubrae) before turning white and atrophic (striae albae). Persistent purple striae in a patient on steroids or with Cushing syndrome deserve attention.

Option by option

  • A. Epidermal hyperplasia due to HPV

    HPV does not cause striae.

  • B. Dermal infection with Staphylococcus

    They are not infective.

  • C. Immune complex deposition

    Immune complexes are not responsible.

  • D. Dermal stretching with rupture of elastic fibres, influenced by cortisol (correct)

    Correct. Stretching with elastic fibre damage and cortisol influence underlies striae.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is D, Dermal stretching with rupture of elastic fibres, influenced by cortisol. Striae distensae result from dermal stretching and damage to collagen and elastic fibres in genetically susceptible skin, with raised glucocorticoid levels as a promoter.

Why is "Epidermal hyperplasia due to HPV" not the answer?

HPV does not cause striae.

Why is "Dermal infection with Staphylococcus" not the answer?

They are not infective.

Why is "Immune complex deposition" not the answer?

Immune complexes are not responsible.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Dermatology: striae distensae in Dermatology. They appear red or purple (striae rubrae) before turning white and atrophic (striae albae). Persistent purple striae in a patient on steroids or with Cushing syndrome deserve attention.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Dermatology: striae distensae?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.