Gynaecological infections: primary syphilis: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological infections: primary syphilis

Sample item

A woman has a single painless, indurated ulcer with a clean base on the labia and non-tender bilateral inguinal lymph nodes. Which is the likely diagnosis?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Primary syphilis (chancre)

The syphilitic chancre of Treponema pallidum is a single, painless, indurated ulcer with a clean base, accompanied by painless regional lymphadenopathy. Chancroid ulcers are painful and soft with a ragged base, and herpes causes multiple painful vesicles. Dark-field microscopy confirms the diagnosis early when serology may be negative, and treatment is benzathine penicillin G.

Option by option

  • A. Chancroid

    Chancroid ulcers are painful and soft with tender nodes.

  • B. Primary syphilis (chancre) (correct)

    Correct. A single painless indurated ulcer with painless nodes is a chancre.

  • C. Genital herpes

    Herpes causes grouped painful vesicles and ulcers.

  • D. Granuloma inguinale

    Granuloma inguinale produces beefy red, painless but bleeding ulcers without adenopathy.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is B, Primary syphilis (chancre). The syphilitic chancre of Treponema pallidum is a single, painless, indurated ulcer with a clean base, accompanied by painless regional lymphadenopathy.

Why is "Chancroid" not the answer?

Chancroid ulcers are painful and soft with tender nodes.

Why is "Genital herpes" not the answer?

Herpes causes grouped painful vesicles and ulcers.

Why is "Granuloma inguinale" not the answer?

Granuloma inguinale produces beefy red, painless but bleeding ulcers without adenopathy.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological infections: primary syphilis in OBG. Chancroid ulcers are painful and soft with a ragged base, and herpes causes multiple painful vesicles. Dark-field microscopy confirms the diagnosis early when serology may be negative, and treatment is benzathine penicillin G.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological infections: primary syphilis?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.