Gynaecological infections: lymphogranuloma venereum: practice question

A OBG question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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OBG · Gynaecological infections: lymphogranuloma venereum

Sample item

A woman presents with tender, matted inguinal lymph nodes above and below the inguinal ligament forming the groove sign, with a transient painless genital papule a few weeks ago. Which organism and treatment fit?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

A. Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1 to L3; doxycycline for 21 days

Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by invasive Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3, with a transient primary lesion followed by painful suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy and the groove sign. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days is the treatment, and buboes may need aspiration. Late complications include rectal strictures and genital elephantiasis.

Option by option

  • A. Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1 to L3; doxycycline for 21 days (correct)

    Correct. LGV is caused by chlamydial serovars L1 to L3 and treated with prolonged doxycycline.

  • B. Haemophilus ducreyi; azithromycin single dose

    Haemophilus ducreyi causes chancroid, which has a painful ulcer.

  • C. Klebsiella granulomatis; single-dose ceftriaxone

    Klebsiella granulomatis causes donovanosis with ulcers and no tender buboes.

  • D. Treponema pallidum; benzathine penicillin

    Syphilis has a painless chancre with nontender nodes.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More OBG questions

Questions about this OBG question

What is the answer to this OBG question?

The best answer is A, Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1 to L3; doxycycline for 21 days. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by invasive Chlamydia trachomatis serovars L1, L2 and L3, with a transient primary lesion followed by painful suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy and the groove sign.

Why is "Haemophilus ducreyi; azithromycin single dose" not the answer?

Haemophilus ducreyi causes chancroid, which has a painful ulcer.

Why is "Klebsiella granulomatis; single-dose ceftriaxone" not the answer?

Klebsiella granulomatis causes donovanosis with ulcers and no tender buboes.

Why is "Treponema pallidum; benzathine penicillin" not the answer?

Syphilis has a painless chancre with nontender nodes.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Gynaecological infections: lymphogranuloma venereum in OBG. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 21 days is the treatment, and buboes may need aspiration. Late complications include rectal strictures and genital elephantiasis.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Gynaecological infections: lymphogranuloma venereum?

Learn management algorithms as steps: PPH, eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy. Then use the flashcards and the other OBG questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.