Infections: tinea incognito: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Infections: tinea incognito

Sample item

A man applied clobetasol for an itchy groin rash for months. The rash is now larger, less scaly, with pustules and little active edge. What best explains this?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Tinea incognito due to topical steroid modification

Topical steroids suppress inflammation and scaling but allow fungal growth, so a dermatophyte infection loses its typical features. This is tinea incognito, and KOH from the lesion often shows abundant hyphae. Stopping the steroid and starting an antifungal is the correct step.

Option by option

  • A. Contact allergy to clobetasol only

    Allergy would worsen with continued use but does not explain pustules and extension in this setting.

  • B. Evolving psoriasis from steroid use

    Psoriasis is not induced by topical steroid use.

  • C. Tinea incognito due to topical steroid modification (correct)

    Correct. Steroid-modified tinea is large, atypical and pustular.

  • D. Bacterial folliculitis alone

    Folliculitis alone does not explain the growing patch following steroids.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is C, Tinea incognito due to topical steroid modification. Topical steroids suppress inflammation and scaling but allow fungal growth, so a dermatophyte infection loses its typical features.

Why is "Contact allergy to clobetasol only" not the answer?

Allergy would worsen with continued use but does not explain pustules and extension in this setting.

Why is "Evolving psoriasis from steroid use" not the answer?

Psoriasis is not induced by topical steroid use.

Why is "Bacterial folliculitis alone" not the answer?

Folliculitis alone does not explain the growing patch following steroids.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infections: tinea incognito in Dermatology. This is tinea incognito, and KOH from the lesion often shows abundant hyphae. Stopping the steroid and starting an antifungal is the correct step.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infections: tinea incognito?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.