Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: post-scabetic itch: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: post-scabetic itch

Sample item

A man and his family were all treated correctly with permethrin 5 percent cream for scabies two weeks ago. He still itches, but there are no new burrows, no fresh nodules at the wrists, and nobody else has new symptoms. What is the best management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Emollients with an oral antihistamine or mild topical steroid

Itch can persist for two to four weeks after the mites are dead, because of a delayed hypersensitivity to mite proteins and faeces. Reassurance and symptomatic treatment are enough. Re-treatment is reserved for new burrows or new cases in the household.

Option by option

  • A. Oral ivermectin followed by a change to benzyl benzoate

    Switching scabicides is for proven treatment failure with new burrows, which is absent here.

  • B. Immediate repeat of permethrin on the whole body

    Repeating a scabicide without new lesions adds irritant dermatitis and does not shorten the itch.

  • C. Skin biopsy to exclude a drug reaction

    Biopsy is unnecessary when the history fits post-scabetic itch and contacts are free of new disease.

  • D. Emollients with an oral antihistamine or mild topical steroid (correct)

    Correct. This is post-scabetic itch, which settles with symptomatic care while the skin recovers.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is D, Emollients with an oral antihistamine or mild topical steroid. Itch can persist for two to four weeks after the mites are dead, because of a delayed hypersensitivity to mite proteins and faeces.

Why is "Oral ivermectin followed by a change to benzyl benzoate" not the answer?

Switching scabicides is for proven treatment failure with new burrows, which is absent here.

Why is "Immediate repeat of permethrin on the whole body" not the answer?

Repeating a scabicide without new lesions adds irritant dermatitis and does not shorten the itch.

Why is "Skin biopsy to exclude a drug reaction" not the answer?

Biopsy is unnecessary when the history fits post-scabetic itch and contacts are free of new disease.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: post-scabetic itch in Dermatology. Reassurance and symptomatic treatment are enough. Re-treatment is reserved for new burrows or new cases in the household.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: post-scabetic itch?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.