Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: intralesional immunotherapy for warts: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: intralesional immunotherapy for warts

Sample item

A 14-year-old has numerous plantar and periungual warts that have not cleared after months of salicylic acid and repeated cryotherapy. Which treatment works by provoking a cell-mediated immune response against the virus in the lesion and in distant warts?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Intralesional Candida antigen

Intralesional injection of Candida antigen (or MMR vaccine or PPD) induces a delayed-type hypersensitivity response that also clears untreated distant warts. It is useful for multiple recalcitrant warts, especially in children who tolerate destructive methods poorly.

Option by option

  • A. Intralesional triamcinolone

    Triamcinolone is immunosuppressive and would favour viral persistence.

  • B. Intralesional lignocaine

    Lignocaine is a local anaesthetic with no antiviral or immunomodulatory action on warts.

  • C. Intralesional hyaluronidase

    Hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid and has no role in wart clearance.

  • D. Intralesional Candida antigen (correct)

    Correct. Candida antigen triggers a cell-mediated immune response that clears warts.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More Dermatology questions

Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is D, Intralesional Candida antigen. Intralesional injection of Candida antigen (or MMR vaccine or PPD) induces a delayed-type hypersensitivity response that also clears untreated distant warts.

Why is "Intralesional triamcinolone" not the answer?

Triamcinolone is immunosuppressive and would favour viral persistence.

Why is "Intralesional lignocaine" not the answer?

Lignocaine is a local anaesthetic with no antiviral or immunomodulatory action on warts.

Why is "Intralesional hyaluronidase" not the answer?

Hyaluronidase breaks down hyaluronic acid and has no role in wart clearance.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: intralesional immunotherapy for warts in Dermatology. It is useful for multiple recalcitrant warts, especially in children who tolerate destructive methods poorly.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Infections: bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic: intralesional immunotherapy for warts?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.