Urology: practice question

A General Surgery question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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General Surgery · Urology

Sample item

A 14-year-old boy wakes with sudden severe pain in the left scrotum and vomiting. The left testis is high-riding and horizontal, and the cremasteric reflex is absent. What is the most appropriate management?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

B. Immediate surgical exploration with fixation of both testes

Sudden pain with a high horizontal testis and absent cremasteric reflex is testicular torsion until proved otherwise. Salvage rates fall steeply after a few hours, so exploration should not be delayed. The other testis is also fixed because the anatomical defect is usually bilateral.

Option by option

  • A. Scrotal support and analgesia

    Analgesia and support leave the testis ischaemic.

  • B. Immediate surgical exploration with fixation of both testes (correct)

    Correct. Early detorsion and bilateral orchidopexy preserve the testis and prevent recurrence.

  • C. Antibiotics for epididymitis and review

    Epididymitis is gradual and rare at this age, and antibiotics will not untwist the cord.

  • D. Colour Doppler ultrasound and wait for the result before deciding

    Waiting for imaging when the diagnosis is clinically clear risks losing the testis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

More General Surgery questions

Questions about this General Surgery question

What is the answer to this General Surgery question?

The best answer is B, Immediate surgical exploration with fixation of both testes. Sudden pain with a high horizontal testis and absent cremasteric reflex is testicular torsion until proved otherwise.

Why is "Scrotal support and analgesia" not the answer?

Analgesia and support leave the testis ischaemic.

Why is "Antibiotics for epididymitis and review" not the answer?

Epididymitis is gradual and rare at this age, and antibiotics will not untwist the cord.

Why is "Colour Doppler ultrasound and wait for the result before deciding" not the answer?

Waiting for imaging when the diagnosis is clinically clear risks losing the testis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Urology in General Surgery. Salvage rates fall steeply after a few hours, so exploration should not be delayed. The other testis is also fixed because the anatomical defect is usually bilateral.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Urology?

Learn classic signs and eponyms alongside what they diagnose. Then use the flashcards and the other General Surgery questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.