Neuropathology: Guillain-Barre syndrome: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Neuropathology: Guillain-Barre syndrome

Sample item

A 28-year-old man develops symmetrical ascending weakness with absent reflexes two weeks after an episode of diarrhoea. Which cerebrospinal fluid result is expected?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Protein 120 mg/dL with 3 cells per microlitre

Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute demyelinating polyneuropathy often following Campylobacter jejuni infection, through molecular mimicry between bacterial lipo-oligosaccharide and nerve gangliosides. Inflammation at nerve roots raises CSF protein while cell count stays normal, termed albuminocytological dissociation. The protein may be normal in the first week.

Option by option

  • A. Neutrophils 1500 per microlitre with low glucose

    Neutrophilic pleocytosis with low glucose indicates bacterial meningitis.

  • B. Lymphocytes 200 per microlitre with normal protein

    A lymphocytic pleocytosis with normal protein suggests viral meningitis.

  • C. Oligoclonal IgG bands with mildly raised cells

    Oligoclonal bands are typical of multiple sclerosis, a central demyelinating disease.

  • D. Protein 120 mg/dL with 3 cells per microlitre (correct)

    Correct. High protein with a normal cell count is characteristic.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is D, Protein 120 mg/dL with 3 cells per microlitre. Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute demyelinating polyneuropathy often following Campylobacter jejuni infection, through molecular mimicry between bacterial lipo-oligosaccharide and nerve gangliosides.

Why is "Neutrophils 1500 per microlitre with low glucose" not the answer?

Neutrophilic pleocytosis with low glucose indicates bacterial meningitis.

Why is "Lymphocytes 200 per microlitre with normal protein" not the answer?

A lymphocytic pleocytosis with normal protein suggests viral meningitis.

Why is "Oligoclonal IgG bands with mildly raised cells" not the answer?

Oligoclonal bands are typical of multiple sclerosis, a central demyelinating disease.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neuropathology: Guillain-Barre syndrome in Pathology. Inflammation at nerve roots raises CSF protein while cell count stays normal, termed albuminocytological dissociation. The protein may be normal in the first week.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neuropathology: Guillain-Barre syndrome?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.