Apoptosis: morphology: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Apoptosis: morphology

Sample item

A liver biopsy from a patient with acute viral hepatitis shows scattered shrunken, intensely eosinophilic hepatocytes with condensed nuclear fragments lying free in sinusoids, and no inflammatory reaction around these cells. Which feature of the process accounts for the absence of inflammation?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

C. Intact plasma membranes, with phosphatidylserine signals prompting rapid phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies

These cells are Councilman bodies, the result of apoptosis. In apoptosis the cell shrinks, chromatin condenses and the cell fragments into membrane-bound bodies. The membrane stays intact and phosphatidylserine flipped to the outer leaflet marks the fragments for macrophages, so the contents do not leak and do not provoke inflammation.

Option by option

  • A. Rupture of the plasma membrane with spillage of lysosomal enzymes

    Membrane rupture with enzyme leakage is the feature of necrosis, which does cause inflammation.

  • B. Complement activation by damaged membranes

    Complement activation by membrane damage is a mechanism of necrosis and immune injury, not clean apoptosis.

  • C. Intact plasma membranes, with phosphatidylserine signals prompting rapid phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies (correct)

    Correct. Membrane integrity and rapid clearance prevent an inflammatory response.

  • D. Swelling of mitochondria with release of cell contents

    Swollen mitochondria with leakage are features of necrotic injury, not apoptosis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is C, Intact plasma membranes, with phosphatidylserine signals prompting rapid phagocytosis of apoptotic bodies. These cells are Councilman bodies, the result of apoptosis.

Why is "Rupture of the plasma membrane with spillage of lysosomal enzymes" not the answer?

Membrane rupture with enzyme leakage is the feature of necrosis, which does cause inflammation.

Why is "Complement activation by damaged membranes" not the answer?

Complement activation by membrane damage is a mechanism of necrosis and immune injury, not clean apoptosis.

Why is "Swelling of mitochondria with release of cell contents" not the answer?

Swollen mitochondria with leakage are features of necrotic injury, not apoptosis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Apoptosis: morphology in Pathology. In apoptosis the cell shrinks, chromatin condenses and the cell fragments into membrane-bound bodies. The membrane stays intact and phosphatidylserine flipped to the outer leaflet marks the fragments for macrophages, so the contents do not leak and do not provoke inflammation.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Apoptosis: morphology?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.