Neoplasia: premalignant lesions in India: practice question

A Pathology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Pathology · Neoplasia: premalignant lesions in India

Sample item

A 35-year-old woman from Gujarat has chewed areca nut preparations for 12 years. She has a burning sensation with spicy food, blanched oral mucosa with palpable fibrous bands and limited mouth opening. Which complication is of greatest concern in her condition?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Oral squamous cell carcinoma

Oral submucous fibrosis is a chronic fibrosing disorder linked to areca nut chewing, with subepithelial collagen deposition and epithelial atrophy. It is a potentially malignant disorder, and a notable fraction of patients develop oral squamous cell carcinoma, which is among the commonest cancers in Indian men.

Option by option

  • A. Pemphigus vulgaris

    Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering disease and does not result from areca nut chewing.

  • B. Oral candidiasis

    Candidiasis may occur in the dry, atrophic mouth but is a minor and treatable problem compared with malignancy.

  • C. Oral lichen planus

    Lichen planus is an immune-mediated condition with a lacy white pattern and is not a complication of fibrosis.

  • D. Oral squamous cell carcinoma (correct)

    Malignant transformation to squamous cell carcinoma is the most important complication of oral submucous fibrosis.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Pathology question

What is the answer to this Pathology question?

The best answer is D, Oral squamous cell carcinoma. Oral submucous fibrosis is a chronic fibrosing disorder linked to areca nut chewing, with subepithelial collagen deposition and epithelial atrophy.

Why is "Pemphigus vulgaris" not the answer?

Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering disease and does not result from areca nut chewing.

Why is "Oral candidiasis" not the answer?

Candidiasis may occur in the dry, atrophic mouth but is a minor and treatable problem compared with malignancy.

Why is "Oral lichen planus" not the answer?

Lichen planus is an immune-mediated condition with a lacy white pattern and is not a complication of fibrosis.

What concept does this question test?

It tests Neoplasia: premalignant lesions in India in Pathology. It is a potentially malignant disorder, and a notable fraction of patients develop oral squamous cell carcinoma, which is among the commonest cancers in Indian men.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as an application question: it asks you to use a fact on a patient or a finding. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study Neoplasia: premalignant lesions in India?

Learn each disease as a bundle: cause, key histology, markers, and the clinical hallmark. Then use the flashcards and the other Pathology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.