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Pathology · Neoplasia: therapy-related malignancy
Sample itemA 24-year-old man treated for a testicular germ cell tumour with an etoposide-containing regimen develops acute myeloid leukaemia two years later. Cytogenetics shows an 11q23 (KMT2A) rearrangement, and there was no preceding myelodysplasia. Which statement best explains this leukaemia?
Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.
The answer and the reasoning
A. Topoisomerase II inhibitor exposure, with short latency and no myelodysplastic phase
Therapy-related myeloid neoplasms follow two patterns. Topoisomerase II inhibitors such as etoposide and anthracyclines cause leukaemia after 1 to 3 years with balanced translocations involving 11q23 or 21q22 and no myelodysplastic phase. Alkylators cause leukaemia after 5 to 10 years, usually preceded by myelodysplasia with deletion of 5q or loss of chromosome 7.
Option by option
A. Topoisomerase II inhibitor exposure, with short latency and no myelodysplastic phase (correct)
Short latency, KMT2A rearrangement and no myelodysplasia fit topoisomerase II inhibitor exposure.
B. Radiation exposure, with the BCR-ABL fusion at diagnosis
BCR-ABL defines chronic myeloid leukaemia and is not the hallmark of therapy-related AML after etoposide.
C. Alkylating agent exposure, with long latency and preceding myelodysplasia with monosomy 7
Alkylator-related disease has a long latency, myelodysplasia and monosomy 7 or deletion 5q, which does not match this case.
D. Antimetabolite exposure, with deletion of 5q and trilineage dysplasia
Antimetabolites such as methotrexate are not the typical cause of therapy-related AML with 11q23 rearrangements.
Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.
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