STI: disseminated gonococcal infection: practice question

A Dermatology question in the style of the NEET PG paper. Answer it first, then read why the right option is right and why each of the others is wrong.

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Dermatology · STI: disseminated gonococcal infection

Sample item

A sexually active woman has fever, migratory polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis of the wrist and a few acral pustules on an erythematous base. Which statement is correct?

Original practice item, not a recalled exam question. Nothing here is recorded.

The answer and the reasoning

D. Terminal complement deficiency predisposes to recurrent disseminated Neisseria infection

Disseminated gonococcal infection produces the arthritis-dermatitis syndrome with tenosynovitis, migratory arthralgia and sparse pustules. Deficiency of terminal complement components C5 to C9 predisposes to recurrent neisserial infection, and parenteral ceftriaxone is the treatment.

Option by option

  • A. It is treated with oral penicillin

    Parenteral ceftriaxone, not oral penicillin, is used.

  • B. Blood cultures are always strongly positive

    Blood cultures are positive in only a minority.

  • C. The condition is caused by Treponema

    Gonococcus, not Treponema, is the cause.

  • D. Terminal complement deficiency predisposes to recurrent disseminated Neisseria infection (correct)

    Correct. Terminal complement deficiency is a recognised predisposition.

Source note: Original NextPrep sample item — pending expert review. This item is original practice material awaiting independent expert review, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.

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Questions about this Dermatology question

What is the answer to this Dermatology question?

The best answer is D, Terminal complement deficiency predisposes to recurrent disseminated Neisseria infection. Disseminated gonococcal infection produces the arthritis-dermatitis syndrome with tenosynovitis, migratory arthralgia and sparse pustules.

Why is "It is treated with oral penicillin" not the answer?

Parenteral ceftriaxone, not oral penicillin, is used.

Why is "Blood cultures are always strongly positive" not the answer?

Blood cultures are positive in only a minority.

Why is "The condition is caused by Treponema" not the answer?

Gonococcus, not Treponema, is the cause.

What concept does this question test?

It tests STI: disseminated gonococcal infection in Dermatology. Deficiency of terminal complement components C5 to C9 predisposes to recurrent neisserial infection, and parenteral ceftriaxone is the treatment.

How hard is this question?

We tag it as a multi-step question: it asks you to combine more than one idea. The tag is our own editorial judgement, not an official difficulty rating, so read the reason for every option, not only the answer.

How should I study STI: disseminated gonococcal infection?

Learn each condition by its primary lesion, site and signature sign. Then use the flashcards and the other Dermatology questions on this site to test what stuck.

Is this a real NEET PG question?

No. It is an original practice item (editorial status: sample, version 1). NextPrep does not publish recalled or leaked questions, and independent faculty review of this item has not been completed yet, so confirm important facts in a standard textbook.